A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving diazepam as conscious sedation for an endoscopy, Which of the following antidotes should the nurse have on hand during the procedure?
Naloxone
Atropine
Flumazenil
Neostigmine
The Correct Answer is C
Flumazenil is the antidote for diazepam, which is a benzodiazepine. Flumazenil is a selective antagonist that can reverse the sedative effects of benzodiazepines and is commonly used in cases of benzodiazepine overdose or to reverse sedation after procedures.
Naloxone (A) is the antidote for opioid overdose and would not be appropriate for reversing the effects of diazepam.
Atropine (B) is an anticholinergic medication used to increase heart rate and is not specific to the reversal of diazepam sedation.
Neostigmine (D) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse the effects of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents and is not indicated for reversing the effects of diazepam.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. History of asthma:Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker and does not affect the airways or cause bronchospasm, unlike beta-blockers, which can exacerbate asthma.
B. History of heart failure:Verapamil has negative inotropic effects, meaning it decreases the strength of heart contractions. This can exacerbate heart failure, particularly in clients with reduced ejection fraction (systolic heart failure). It is generally contraindicated in clients with severe heart failure as it can worsen symptoms.
C. Systolic BP 110 mm Hg:While verapamil can cause a drop in blood pressure due to its vasodilatory effects, a systolic blood pressure of 110 mm Hg is not an absolute contraindication.
D. A blood creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL is within the normal range (approximately 0.6–1.2 mg/dL for adults). Verapamil is not contraindicated in clients with normal renal function.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Hemoglobin level: The hemoglobin level measures the amount of hemoglobin, the oxygen-carrying protein in red blood cells, in the blood. Warfarin is not directly responsible for increasing or decreasing the hemoglobin level. While warfarin can lead to bleeding complications in some cases, it does not specifically target the hemoglobin level, so it is not a direct indicator of the medication's effectiveness.
B. Platelet count: The platelet count measures the number of platelets in the blood, which are essential for blood clotting. Warfarin does not directly affect platelet production or count. It works by inhibiting the production of certain clotting factors, not by affecting platelets. Monitoring the platelet count is important, but it is not an indicator of warfarin's effectiveness in preventing excessive clotting.
C. Prothrombin time (PT) or activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT): Prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) are coagulation tests used to assess different types of anticoagulant medications, such as heparin. Warfarin's effect is measured using the International Normalized Ratio (INR). PT and aPTT are not specific to warfarin therapy and are not used to monitor its effectiveness. The INR is the appropriate laboratory test for assessing the efficacy of warfarin therapy.
D. International Normalized Ratio (INR): This is the correct answer. The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is the laboratory test used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. The INR measures the time it takes for the blood to clot and reflects the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. A therapeutic INR within the target range (e.g., INR = 2.0 to 3.0 for most indications) indicates that warfarin has been effective in preventing excessive clotting and reducing the risk of complications associated with blood clots.
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