A nurse is caring for a client who was recently diagnosed with depression. The client's partner asks when he will get better. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?
"We've seen steady improvement in other clients who are depressed."
"Tell me what you know about depression,"
"No one really knows the answer to that question."
"The important thing is that he gets better, not how long it takes."
The Correct Answer is B
Rationale:
A. "We've seen steady improvement in other clients who are depressed.": While this may sound reassuring, it provides generalized information that may create unrealistic expectations. It does not address the partner’s specific concerns or open up a dialogue for emotional support or understanding.
B. "Tell me what you know about depression,": This response encourages open communication and assesses the partner's understanding of the condition. It allows the nurse to provide accurate, individualized information and emotional support based on what the partner already knows or believes.
C. "No one really knows the answer to that question.": Though factually true, this statement may seem dismissive or lacking empathy. It does not invite discussion or support the emotional needs of the partner, who is likely feeling uncertain or overwhelmed.
D. "The important thing is that he gets better, not how long it takes.": This response minimizes the partner’s valid concern about recovery time. It may come across as invalidating and does not provide helpful or therapeutic communication.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Rationale:
• Temperature: An elevated temperature of 39.3° C is consistent with an active infection like pneumonia. This finding supports the need for antibiotic treatment and does not delay administration unless linked to an adverse drug reaction.
• WBC count: A WBC count of 16,000/mm³ indicates leukocytosis, which is expected in bacterial pneumonia. It confirms infection and the need for antibiotics, not a reason to withhold cefazolin.
• Allergies: The client has a documented allergy to penicillin, which is critical because cefazolin is a cephalosporin. Cephalosporins share a similar beta-lactam structure and can cross-react in clients with penicillin allergies, increasing the risk of anaphylaxis. Reporting this ensures safe prescribing and prevents a life-threatening hypersensitivity reaction.
• Chest x-ray: The left lower lobe density confirms pneumonia. This imaging supports the clinical decision to administer antibiotics and does not warrant withholding the prescribed medication.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Nifedipine: Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker that helps reduce myocardial oxygen demand by decreasing afterload and dilating coronary arteries. However, it is not the priority in acute chest pain management because it has a slower onset compared to nitroglycerin.
B. Nitroglycerin: Nitroglycerin is the priority medication for acute angina. It works rapidly by dilating coronary arteries and reducing myocardial oxygen demand, which helps relieve chest pressure and prevent progression to myocardial infarction.
C. Atenolol: Atenolol, a beta-blocker, decreases heart rate and contractility to reduce myocardial oxygen consumption. While useful for long-term angina management, it is not the first-line agent for immediate chest pain relief in acute settings.
D. Clopidogrel: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet agent that prevents clot formation, often used in long-term management or following stent placement. It does not provide immediate relief from angina and is therefore not the priority medication in this scenario.
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