A nurse is caring for a female client who is at 42 weeks of gestation in the prenatal clinic.
Fundal height 36 cm at 42 weeks gestation
Cervix closed and thick
Vertex presentation at +1 station
Clear to white mucus-like vaginal discharge
Fetal heart rate 150/min
Nonstress test nonreactive
Positive Group B Streptococcus culture
Biophysical profile score 8/10
Correct Answer : A,F,G
Choice A rationale: A fundal height of 36 cm at 42 weeks gestation is concerning because fundal height should approximate gestational age in weeks ±2 cm. At 42 weeks, expected measurement is about 40–44 cm. A measurement of 36 cm suggests possible intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) or oligohydramnios, both of which are complications associated with post-term pregnancy. This discrepancy requires further evaluation with ultrasound and fetal surveillance to ensure adequate growth and amniotic fluid volume.
Choice B rationale: A cervix that is closed and thick at 42 weeks gestation is not an immediate problem requiring intervention. Cervical ripening varies, and although induction may be considered at this gestational age, the cervix itself being closed is not pathologic. It simply indicates that spontaneous labor has not yet begun. This finding does not require urgent intervention but may guide decisions about induction methods such as prostaglandins or mechanical ripening.
Choice C rationale: A vertex presentation at +1 station is a favorable finding. Vertex is the optimal presentation for vaginal delivery, and +1 station indicates that the fetal head is descending into the pelvis. This is reassuring and does not require intervention. It suggests that the fetus is well-positioned for labor and delivery, and no abnormality is present in this assessment.
Choice D rationale: Clear to white mucus-like vaginal discharge is a normal physiologic finding in pregnancy, known as leukorrhea. It results from increased estrogen and cervical gland activity. This type of discharge is not associated with infection or rupture of membranes. Since it is expected and benign, it does not require intervention. Only abnormal discharges such as foul-smelling, green, or bloody secretions would warrant further evaluation.
Choice E rationale: A fetal heart rate of 150/min is within the normal baseline range of 110 to 160 beats per minute. This indicates adequate fetal oxygenation and no evidence of tachycardia or bradycardia. Since the rate is normal and reassuring, it does not require intervention. Continuous monitoring remains important, but this specific finding is not problematic.
Choice F rationale: A nonstress test that is nonreactive is concerning because it indicates that the fetus did not demonstrate adequate accelerations of heart rate with movement. A reactive NST requires at least two accelerations of 15 beats/min above baseline lasting 15 seconds within 20 minutes. A nonreactive result suggests possible fetal hypoxemia, sleep state, or neurologic compromise. This requires further evaluation with a contraction stress test or repeat biophysical profile.
Choice G rationale: A positive Group B Streptococcus culture is abnormal and requires intervention. GBS colonization increases the risk of neonatal sepsis, pneumonia, and meningitis if transmitted during delivery. Standard care is intrapartum prophylaxis with IV penicillin or ampicillin during labor. Since this client is GBS positive, the nurse must ensure that prophylactic antibiotics are administered at the onset of labor or rupture of membranes to prevent neonatal infection.
Choice H rationale: A biophysical profile score of 8/10 is considered reassuring. The BPP assesses fetal breathing, movement, tone, amniotic fluid volume, and NST. A score of 8 to 10 indicates normal fetal well-being, while 6 is equivocal and ≤4 is abnormal. Since this client’s score is 8, no immediate intervention is required. This is a reassuring finding and does not indicate fetal compromise.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The Diphtheria-tetanus-acellular pertussis (Tdap) vaccine is recommended during each pregnancy, ideally between 27 and 36 weeks of gestation. This timing is crucial because it allows for the maternal production and optimal transplacental transfer of pertussis antibodies to the fetus. These antibodies provide crucial passive immunity to the newborn against pertussis (whooping cough), which is a severe and potentially fatal disease in infants before they can be directly immunized.
Choice B rationale
The Human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine is not recommended during pregnancy because there is limited safety data regarding its use in pregnant women. While it is not known to cause adverse fetal effects, it is a recombinant vaccine and, as a precautionary measure, it should be delayed until the postpartum period. Routine HPV vaccination is typically administered to adolescents and young adults up to age 26.
Choice C rationale
The Varicella vaccine is a live attenuated virus vaccine and is contraindicated in pregnancy due to the theoretical risk of transmission of the live virus to the fetus, which could potentially cause congenital varicella syndrome. Women who are non-immune to varicella should receive this vaccine postpartum, before being discharged from the hospital, to protect future pregnancies.
Choice D rationale
The Measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine is a live attenuated virus vaccine and is contraindicated in pregnancy due to the theoretical risk of fetal infection and subsequent congenital abnormalities, particularly from the rubella component. Women who are not immune to rubella should be vaccinated postpartum and advised to avoid conception for about one month following vaccination.
Choice E rationale
The inactivated influenza (flu shot) vaccine is recommended for all women who are pregnant during the flu season, regardless of their stage of gestation, including at 30 weeks. This is a killed virus vaccine and is considered safe in pregnancy. It protects the mother from severe influenza illness and also provides the newborn with passive immunity in the initial months of life.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Erb-Duchenne palsy, a form of brachial plexus injury (C5-C6), primarily affects the nerves controlling the shoulder and upper arm muscles. It generally does not affect cranial nerves (such as IX and X, which control swallowing) or the muscles of the mouth, thus typically preserving the ability to suck and swallow.
Choice B rationale
The Moro (startle) reflex involves symmetrical extension and abduction of the arms followed by adduction and flexion. An injury to the brachial plexus on one side impairs the motor function of that arm, resulting in the characteristic absence of the reflex in the affected extremity, which is a key diagnostic finding.
Choice C rationale
The Babinski reflex is a normal neurological finding in infants up to about 2 years old, reflecting immature corticospinal tracts. It is a foot reflex and is unrelated to a brachial plexus injury in the neck and shoulder area; thus, its presence is not a specific finding for Erb-Duchenne palsy.
Choice D rationale
Cleft palate is a congenital craniofacial malformation resulting from incomplete fusion of the palatine shelves during fetal development. It is a structural anomaly of the mouth and is not a finding or complication associated with Erb-Duchenne palsy, which is a neuromuscular injury sustained, most commonly, during birth.
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