A nurse is caring for a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and received a provider order for group B streptococcus beta-hemolytic culture.
Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
Acyclovir will be prescribed if this test result is positive.
This test will be repeated 24 hours after the initial test is done.
Antibiotics will be administered before labor if this test result is positive.
This test will require a blood specimen to be collected from a vein.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used primarily to treat herpes simplex virus (HSV) infections to prevent vertical transmission to the neonate. Group B Streptococcus (GBS) is a bacterium and is treated with antibiotics, specifically penicillin or ampicillin, administered intravenously during labor and delivery to prevent neonatal sepsis.
Choice B rationale
The Group B Streptococcus (GBS) culture is typically collected as a single screen between 36 weeks 0 days and 37 weeks 6 days of gestation from the lower vagina and perirectal area. This one-time positive result is sufficient to indicate the need for intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis (IAP); repeat testing 24 hours later is not standard practice.
Choice C rationale
If the Group B Streptococcus (GBS) culture is positive, the client is considered colonized and requires intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis (IAP), usually penicillin G, administered intravenously at the onset of labor or rupture of membranes. This reduces the risk of GBS transmission to the newborn, which can cause severe neonatal morbidity like sepsis or pneumonia.
Choice D rationale
The Group B Streptococcus (GBS) culture is a screening test obtained via a swab of the client's lower vagina and perirectal area, not a blood test. The GBS bacteria colonize these areas, and the swab is sent for culture and sensitivity to determine the need for prophylactic antibiotics during labor.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A"]
Explanation
Answer is: Oral temperature 38.3° C (101° F)
This client is at 30 weeks’ gestation and presenting in preterm labor with uterine contractions, cervical change, and leakage of amniotic fluid. Her vital signs are mostly within normal limits for pregnancy, except for the elevated temperature of 38.3° C, which indicates maternal fever. Fever in a client with preterm labor is concerning because it may suggest intra-amniotic infection (chorioamnionitis), which increases risk for maternal sepsis, fetal infection, and preterm birth complications.
Other vital signs are within normal physiological ranges for pregnancy:
- Heart rate 98/min (slightly elevated but can be normal in pregnancy)
- Respiratory rate 18/min (normal)
- Blood pressure 112/59 mm Hg (normal)
- SaO₂ 98% on room air (normal)
Take-home point: In preterm labor, a maternal fever is a key warning sign that warrants prompt evaluation and interventions to prevent complications for both mother and fetus.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Step 1 is: Start with the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP): July 21st.
Step 2 is: Subtract 3 months: July minus 3 months is April.
Step 3 is: Add 7 days to the LMP day: 21 plus 7 days is the 28th.
Step 4 is: Add 1 year: April 28th of the following year. Final calculated answer: April 28th.
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