A nurse is caring for a postoperative patient following a total knee replacement. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate the provider to prescribe to prevent the formulation of a deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
Alteplase
Clopidogrel
Warfarin
Enoxaparin
The Correct Answer is D
A. Alteplase: Alteplase is a thrombolytic used to dissolve existing clots in conditions such as acute myocardial infarction, ischemic stroke, or massive pulmonary embolism. It is not used routinely for DVT prophylaxis because it carries a high risk of bleeding and is not preventive.
B. Clopidogrel: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet agent used primarily for arterial thrombotic conditions, such as prevention of stroke or myocardial infarction. It does not provide adequate prophylaxis against venous thromboembolism, which is more platelet-independent and coagulation-factor dependent.
C. Warfarin: Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant that inhibits vitamin K–dependent clotting factors. While it can prevent DVT, it is not typically used immediately postoperatively due to delayed onset of action and the need for close INR monitoring.
D. Enoxaparin: Enoxaparin is a low-molecular-weight heparin commonly prescribed postoperatively to prevent DVT, especially after orthopedic surgeries like total knee replacement. It acts quickly, inhibits factor Xa, and effectively reduces venous thromboembolism risk in high-risk surgical patients.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Reduced fibrin split products (FSPs): In DIC, fibrin is excessively formed and subsequently broken down, leading to increased, not reduced, fibrin split products. A reduction in FSPs would not support the diagnosis and may indicate a laboratory error or absence of active clot breakdown.
B. Elevated fibrinogen: Fibrinogen is typically consumed during the coagulation process in DIC, leading to decreased levels rather than elevated. Low fibrinogen contributes to bleeding tendencies observed in patients with DIC.
C. Reduced prothrombin time (PT): In DIC, coagulation factors are depleted, resulting in a prolonged PT. A shortened PT is not consistent with consumptive coagulopathy and does not support the diagnosis.
D. Elevated D-dimer: D-dimer is a degradation product of cross-linked fibrin and is markedly elevated in DIC due to widespread clot formation and subsequent fibrinolysis. Elevated D-dimer is a key laboratory finding supporting the presence of acute DIC and correlates with active intravascular coagulation and bleeding risk.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Bradypnea: Bradypnea is not commonly associated with DIC. Respiratory rate may increase due to compensatory mechanisms from hypoxia or acidosis secondary to microvascular thrombosis, but slow breathing is not an expected finding.
B. Hypertension: DIC often leads to hypotension rather than hypertension due to systemic bleeding, fluid shifts, and potential shock. Hypertension is not a typical manifestation of this coagulopathy.
C. Bradycardia: Heart rate in DIC is usually elevated (tachycardia) as a compensatory response to bleeding, hypovolemia, or shock. Bradycardia is not a characteristic finding.
D. Epistaxis: Epistaxis (nosebleeds) is a classic manifestation of DIC due to widespread consumption of platelets and clotting factors, leading to bleeding from mucous membranes, puncture sites, and other superficial areas. It reflects the hemorrhagic phase of this disorder.
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