A nurse is collecting data from a client who has a history of angina and reports having a dull chest pressure that radiates to the left side of his neck. Which of the following is the priority medication the nurse should anticipate the provider prescribing?
Nifedipine
Nitroglycerin
Atenolol
Clopidogrel
The Correct Answer is B
Rationale:
A. Nifedipine: Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker that helps reduce myocardial oxygen demand by decreasing afterload and dilating coronary arteries. However, it is not the priority in acute chest pain management because it has a slower onset compared to nitroglycerin.
B. Nitroglycerin: Nitroglycerin is the priority medication for acute angina. It works rapidly by dilating coronary arteries and reducing myocardial oxygen demand, which helps relieve chest pressure and prevent progression to myocardial infarction.
C. Atenolol: Atenolol, a beta-blocker, decreases heart rate and contractility to reduce myocardial oxygen consumption. While useful for long-term angina management, it is not the first-line agent for immediate chest pain relief in acute settings.
D. Clopidogrel: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet agent that prevents clot formation, often used in long-term management or following stent placement. It does not provide immediate relief from angina and is therefore not the priority medication in this scenario.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale:
A. 2+ pitting edema of the lower extremities: Mild to moderate lower extremity edema is common in pregnancy and often seen in preeclampsia. While it should be monitored, it is not an immediate danger unless accompanied by other severe symptoms.
B. Increased hemoglobin: Hemoconcentration may occur in preeclampsia due to fluid shifting into interstitial spaces, but a mildly elevated hemoglobin alone does not warrant urgent intervention. It should be evaluated in the context of other lab and clinical findings.
C. Blood pressure 158/54 mm Hg: Although the systolic pressure is elevated, it does not meet the threshold of severe hypertension (>160 systolic or >110 diastolic). This finding warrants monitoring and documentation but is not the most urgent among the listed options.
D. Client report of upper right quadrant pain: Right upper quadrant or epigastric pain can signal liver involvement in severe preeclampsia, potentially indicating HELLP syndrome. This is a critical warning sign and requires immediate attention to prevent complications such as liver rupture or seizure.
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"B"}
Explanation
Rationale:
• Suicidal ideation: The client has a history of suicidal threats and is currently expressing distress, isolation, and a desire to no longer exist. These are key red flags for suicidal thoughts and require immediate monitoring.
• Hopelessness: Statements like “I wish I weren’t here” and “my life is a mess” indicate a loss of hope about the future. Hopelessness is a strong predictor of suicidal intent in clients with depression.
• Acute stress disorder: This condition involves exposure to a traumatic event within the past month with symptoms like flashbacks or dissociation. The client’s distress stems from life changes, not acute trauma.
• Borderline personality disorder: While this disorder includes unstable relationships and emotional reactivity, there is no history of impulsivity or identity disturbance to support the diagnosis.
• Emotional lability: The client displays a flat affect and tearfulness, not rapid mood shifts. Emotional lability refers to quick and exaggerated changes in emotional expression.
• Hypervigilance: This involves a heightened state of alertness often associated with trauma or PTSD. The client’s behavior is more aligned with withdrawal and depression.
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