A nurse is conducting a mental health assessment for a patient reporting persistent feelings of hopelessness. Which intervention best aligns with evidence-based practice for addressing this symptom?
Recommend immediate electroconvulsive therapy
Initiate cognitive behavioral therapy techniques
Administer a high-dose benzodiazepine
Encourage the patient to avoid social interactions
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is reserved for severe, treatment-resistant depression or acute suicidal ideation, not general hopelessness. It involves significant risks and requires specialist oversight, making it inappropriate as a first-line intervention for this symptom, which can be addressed with less invasive methods.
Choice B reason: Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) targets negative thought patterns, such as hopelessness, by restructuring cognitions, a core feature of depression. Evidence-based for mood disorders, CBT reduces symptoms through structured interventions, making it the most appropriate choice for addressing hopelessness in a mental health assessment.
Choice C reason: High-dose benzodiazepines treat acute anxiety or agitation, not hopelessness, which is a depressive symptom. They risk sedation and dependence without addressing cognitive distortions, making them inappropriate for this symptom and contrary to evidence-based psychiatric nursing practice.
Choice D reason: Avoiding social interactions may worsen hopelessness by increasing isolation, a risk factor for depression. Evidence-based practice encourages social engagement to improve mood and support networks, making this intervention counterproductive and incorrect for addressing the patient’s reported symptom.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: HIPAA requires signed patient consent for releasing medical information to third parties, ensuring patient autonomy and confidentiality. This legal standard applies to mental health records, protecting sensitive data, making this the correct choice for information release.
Choice B reason: Verbal consent, even with a guardian, is insufficient under HIPAA, which mandates written authorization for protected health information. This ensures clear documentation, making this choice incorrect, as written consent is the legal standard.
Choice C reason: Psychiatrist approval does not replace patient consent for releasing information. HIPAA prioritizes patient authorization, and provider approval alone violates privacy regulations, making this choice incorrect for legal information release protocols.
Choice D reason: Health care team permission is irrelevant to releasing information, as only the patient’s signed consent is legally required. Team collaboration does not override HIPAA’s patient-centered consent rules, making this choice incorrect.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Suggesting the adolescent share with the psychiatrist avoids the nurse’s duty to report imminent threats. Ethical and legal standards require immediate action for safety, making this response inadequate, as it delays intervention in a potential crisis.
Choice B reason: Reporting a threat to harm others is a legal and ethical duty in psychiatric nursing, as it indicates imminent danger. Sharing with the team ensures safety interventions, aligning with mandatory reporting laws, making this the correct response.
Choice C reason: Discussing feelings is therapeutic but does not address the immediate safety risk of a threat. Prioritizing exploration over reporting violates ethical standards for managing dangerous behaviors, making this response incorrect in this context.
Choice D reason: Promising confidentiality in the face of a threat violates nursing ethics and legal mandates to report harm risks. This undermines patient and public safety, making it a non-therapeutic and incorrect response to a serious threat.
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