A nurse is monitoring the pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) for a client. The nurse should identify that a reading of 17 mm Hg is an indication of which of the following conditions?
Right ventricular failure
Fluid volume deficit
Mitral regurgitation
Afterload reduction
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because right ventricular failure would cause an increase in right atrial pressure and right ventricular end-diastolic pressure, but not in PAWP, which reflects left atrial pressure and left ventricular end- diastolic pressure.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because fluid volume deficit would cause a decrease in PAWP, as there would be less blood volume in the pulmonary circulation.
Choice C Reason: This is correct because mitral regurgitation would cause an increase in PAWP, as the blood would back up into the left atrium and pulmonary veins due to the incompetent mitral valve.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because afterload reduction would cause a decrease in PAWP, as there would be less resistance to the left ventricular ejection and less blood volume in the pulmonary circulation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber indicates an air leak in the chest tube system, which can compromise the drainage of air and fluid from the pleural space and impair lung expansion.
Choice B Reason: Occasional bubbling in the water-seal chamber is normal and expected, as it indicates that air is being removed from the pleural space.
Choice C Reason: Fluctuations in the fluid level in the water-seal chamber are normal and expected, as they reflect changes in intrathoracic pressure during inspiration and expiration.
Choice D Reason: Constant bubbling in the suction-control chamber is normal and expected, as it indicates that suction is being applied to the chest tube system.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because a client who is post-CABG and has high cholesterol is not in immediate danger, as atorvastatin is a long-term medication that lowers cholesterol and prevents cardiovascular complications.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because a client who has pneumonia and a slightly elevated WBC count is not in immediate danger, as piperacillin is an antibiotic that treats bacterial infections.
Choice C Reason: This is correct because a client who has renal failure and a high serum potassium level is in immediate danger, as sodium polystyrene sulfonate is an emergency medication that lowers potassium and prevents cardiac arrhythmias.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because a client who has anemia and a mild hemoglobin deficiency is not in immediate danger, as epoetin alfa is a long-term medication that stimulates red blood cell production and improves oxygen delivery.
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