A nurse is prioritizing client care after receiving change-of-shift report. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to see first?
A client who told an assistive personnel he is short of breath
A client who received oral pain medication 30 min ago
A client who is scheduled for an abdominal x-ray and is awaiting transport
A client who has a prescription for discharge
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A Reason: This is correct because a client who is short of breath is in immediate danger, as it indicates a possible respiratory compromise or failure. The nurse should assess the client's oxygen saturation, respiratory rate, and lung sounds, and provide oxygen therapy as needed.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because a client who received oral pain medication 30 min ago is not in immediate danger, as it indicates that the client's pain has been managed and the medication has had time to take effect.
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because a client who is scheduled for an abdominal x-ray and is awaiting transport is not in immediate danger, as it indicates that the client's condition is stable and the diagnostic test is not urgent.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because a client who has a prescription for discharge is not in immediate danger, as it indicates that the client's condition has improved and the client is ready to leave the hospital.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Albumin 25% is not a medication that the nurse should plan to administer for a client who is experiencing Cushing's triad following a subdural hematoma. Albumin 25% is a colloid solution that increases the oncotic pressure and draws fluid from the interstitial space into the intravascular space, which can worsen the intracranial pressure by increasing the cerebral blood flow and edema.
Choice B Reason: Dextran 70 is not a medication that the nurse should plan to administer for a client who is experiencing Cushing's triad following a subdural hematoma. Dextran 70 is a plasma expander that increases the blood volume and viscosity, which can also worsen the intracranial pressure by increasing the cerebral blood flow and edema.
Choice C Reason: Mannitol 25% is a medication that the nurse should plan to administer for a client who is experiencing Cushing's triad following a subdural hematoma. Mannitol 25% is an osmotic diuretic that reduces the intracranial pressure by creating an osmotic gradient and drawing fluid from the brain tissue into the blood vessels, which can then be excreted by the kidneys. The nurse should monitor the urine output, serum osmolality, and electrolytes when administering mannitol 25%.
Choice D Reason: Hydroxyethyl starch is not a medication that the nurse should plan to administer for a client who is experiencing Cushing's triad following a subdural hematoma. Hydroxyethyl starch is another plasma expander that has similar effects as dextran 70, and can also increase the risk of coagulopathy and renal failure.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because respiratory alkalosis is characterized by a high pH and a low PaCO2, indicating that the client is hyperventilating and losing too much carbon dioxide.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because metabolic acidosis is characterized by a low pH and a low bicarbonate level, indicating that the client has an excess of metabolic acids or a loss of base.
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because metabolic alkalosis is characterized by a high pH and a high bicarbonate level, indicating that the client has an excess of base or a loss of metabolic acids.
Choice D Reason: This is correct because respiratory acidosis is characterized by a low pH and a high PaCO2, indicating that the client is hypoventilating and retaining too much carbon dioxide.
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