A nurse is prioritizing client care after receiving change-of-shift report. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to see first?
A client who told an assistive personnel he is short of breath
A client who received oral pain medication 30 min ago
A client who is scheduled for an abdominal x-ray and is awaiting transport
A client who has a prescription for discharge
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A Reason: This is correct because a client who is short of breath is in immediate danger, as it indicates a possible respiratory compromise or failure. The nurse should assess the client's oxygen saturation, respiratory rate, and lung sounds, and provide oxygen therapy as needed.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because a client who received oral pain medication 30 min ago is not in immediate danger, as it indicates that the client's pain has been managed and the medication has had time to take effect.
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because a client who is scheduled for an abdominal x-ray and is awaiting transport is not in immediate danger, as it indicates that the client's condition is stable and the diagnostic test is not urgent.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because a client who has a prescription for discharge is not in immediate danger, as it indicates that the client's condition has improved and the client is ready to leave the hospital.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Albumin 25% is not a medication that the nurse should plan to administer for a client who is experiencing Cushing's triad following a subdural hematoma. Albumin 25% is a colloid solution that increases the oncotic pressure and draws fluid from the interstitial space into the intravascular space, which can worsen the intracranial pressure by increasing the cerebral blood flow and edema.
Choice B Reason: Dextran 70 is not a medication that the nurse should plan to administer for a client who is experiencing Cushing's triad following a subdural hematoma. Dextran 70 is a plasma expander that increases the blood volume and viscosity, which can also worsen the intracranial pressure by increasing the cerebral blood flow and edema.
Choice C Reason: Mannitol 25% is a medication that the nurse should plan to administer for a client who is experiencing Cushing's triad following a subdural hematoma. Mannitol 25% is an osmotic diuretic that reduces the intracranial pressure by creating an osmotic gradient and drawing fluid from the brain tissue into the blood vessels, which can then be excreted by the kidneys. The nurse should monitor the urine output, serum osmolality, and electrolytes when administering mannitol 25%.
Choice D Reason: Hydroxyethyl starch is not a medication that the nurse should plan to administer for a client who is experiencing Cushing's triad following a subdural hematoma. Hydroxyethyl starch is another plasma expander that has similar effects as dextran 70, and can also increase the risk of coagulopathy and renal failure.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because clamping the client's chest tube can cause a tension pneumothorax, which is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because increasing the client's wall suction can cause excessive negative pressure in the pleural space, which can damage the lung tissue and impair ventilation.
Choice C Reason: This is correct because repositioning the client can help relieve chest burning, which may be caused by irritation of the intercostal nerves by the chest tube or by air trapping in the pleural space.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because stripping the client's chest tube can create high negative pressure in the pleural space, which can damage the lung tissue and impair ventilation.
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