A nurse is providing education to a client with multiple risk factors for coronary artery disease. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse prioritize in monitoring to assess the client's risk for developing coronary artery disease?
Lactate dehydrogenase levels
Low-density lipoprotein cholesterol levels
Creatinine kinase-mb levels
Cardiac troponin levels
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Lactate dehydrogenase is an enzyme found in many tissues, including heart, liver, and skeletal muscles. It is historically associated with tissue damage markers but lacks the specificity and predictive value required to assess the long-term risk of developing coronary artery disease compared to lipid profile parameters.
Choice B reason: Elevated low-density lipoprotein cholesterol levels are a primary, well-established modifiable risk factor for the development of atherosclerosis. These particles deposit cholesterol into the arterial walls, forming plaques that lead to coronary artery stenosis. Monitoring this level is essential for primary prevention and risk stratification in patients.
Choice C reason: Creatinine kinase-mb is a cardiac-specific isoenzyme used to detect acute myocardial infarction by indicating current or recent myocardial tissue necrosis. It does not provide predictive information regarding the future development of coronary artery disease, as it is a diagnostic tool for acute injury rather than a risk assessment biomarker.
Choice D reason: Cardiac troponin levels, specifically troponin I and T, are highly sensitive and specific markers for myocardial cell injury. They are elevated during acute coronary syndromes and myocardial infarction. Similar to other injury markers, they are not used to screen for or assess the risk of developing future coronary artery disease.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","C","D"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Orthopnea is more commonly associated with left-sided heart failure or pulmonary edema rather than an acute myocardial infarction. While severe heart failure can be a complication of an infarction, orthopnea is not a primary, expected diagnostic manifestation of the acute ischemic event itself during the initial assessment.
Choice B reason: Nausea and vomiting are frequent autonomic responses to acute myocardial ischemia, particularly in cases of inferior wall myocardial infarction. This occurs due to the activation of the vagus nerve and the stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system in response to myocardial tissue necrosis and pain.
Choice C reason: Tachycardia is a common compensatory mechanism during an acute myocardial infarction. The body attempts to maintain adequate cardiac output in the face of decreased stroke volume caused by damaged myocardial tissue. This sympathetic nervous system activation results in an elevated heart rate to meet peripheral oxygen demands.
Choice D reason: Diaphoresis is a classic clinical manifestation of myocardial infarction caused by a massive sympathetic nervous system discharge. As the body experiences ischemic pain and hemodynamic stress, the sweat glands are stimulated, resulting in the characteristic cold, clammy skin frequently observed in patients experiencing acute coronary syndromes.
Choice E reason: Headache is not a typical symptom of an acute myocardial infarction. While high blood pressure or certain medications might cause headaches, it does not hold diagnostic significance for coronary artery occlusion. Attributing a headache to myocardial infarction would divert the nurse from identifying more critical, life-threatening cardiovascular symptoms.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: While lifestyle modifications such as diet and exercise are foundational for long-term cardiovascular health, they are secondary to the immediate pharmacological necessity of preventing a recurrent coronary event. These measures take time to produce physiological changes, whereas medication adherence provides immediate protection against further thrombus formation.
Choice B reason: Following a myocardial infarction, the prevention of recurrent coronary thrombosis is the absolute priority. Anti-platelet therapy is the cornerstone of secondary prevention because it inhibits the aggregation of platelets on atherosclerotic plaques. Non-adherence to these medications significantly increases the risk of mortality and recurrent ischemic events, making it the most critical instruction.
Choice C reason: Stress management is a beneficial adjunct therapy in cardiac rehabilitation to reduce sympathetic nervous system overdrive. However, it does not provide the same level of acute protection against re-infarction as anti-platelet medication. It is an important, but not prioritized, component of the discharge education compared to the pharmacologic regimen.
Choice D reason: Scheduling follow-up care is essential for ongoing monitoring and adjusting therapeutic plans. While this is necessary for successful long-term management of chronic cardiac conditions, it is not an immediate life-saving intervention. Prioritizing follow-up over medication adherence would be an error in clinical judgment regarding the hierarchy of patient needs.
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