A nurse is reinforcing teaching about the care of a client who has tinea corporis with a newly licensed nurse.Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?
Administer a broad-spectrum antibiotic.
Isolate for 24 hr after lesions appear.
Avoid direct contact.
Place on airborne precautions.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Administering a broad-spectrum antibiotic is not appropriate for tinea corporis, which is a fungal infection. Antifungal medications are needed.
Choice B rationale
Isolating the client for 24 hours after lesions appear is not necessary, as tinea corporis is not a severe infection requiring isolation.
Choice C rationale
Avoiding direct contact is essential to prevent the spread of the fungal infection.
Choice D rationale
Placing the client on airborne precautions is not needed for tinea corporis, as it is not an airborne infection.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"D","dropdown-group-2":"C"}
Explanation
The nurse should clarify the prescription for Digoxin due to the client's Irregular heart rhythm.
Rationale for correct prescription: Digoxin requires clarification because it can cause or exacerbate irregular heart rhythms. The client's irregular heart rhythm could indicate digoxin toxicity or an inappropriate dose. Monitoring and adjusting the digoxin prescription can prevent complications. Digoxin is used to control atrial fibrillation but needs careful management. Clarification ensures safe and effective use.
Rationale for other options: Warfarin does not need immediate clarification as there is no indication of excessive bleeding risk. Metoprolol is unlikely to be the cause of irregular rhythm in this scenario. Atorvastatin, used for hyperlipidemia, does not affect heart rhythm. Reported dizziness can be due to various causes and is not specific to digoxin. Palpitations are common in atrial fibrillation and need broader management beyond digoxin adjustment. Irregular heart rhythm strongly points to potential issues with digoxin. Bleeding risk pertains to warfarin management, not relevant here.
Clarification of digoxin is the priority due to direct impact on heart rhythm and patient safety.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Increased respiratory rate is a compensatory mechanism in metabolic acidosis to expel excess carbon dioxide and decrease blood acidity.
Choice B rationale
Positive Trousseau's sign indicates hypocalcemia, not metabolic acidosis. It is seen in patients with low calcium levels.
Choice C rationale
Tingling of the fingers is usually associated with electrolyte imbalances such as hypocalcemia, rather than metabolic acidosis.
Choice D rationale
Dizziness upon standing is typically a sign of orthostatic hypotension, not directly related to metabolic acidosis.
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