A nurse is reviewing a client's 0800 laboratory values at 1100. The nurse notes that the client received heparin at 1000. Which of the following laboratory values warrants an incident report?
INR 1.6
WBC 6,000/mm3
Hgb 16 g/dL
aPTT 90 seconds
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
An INR of 1.6 is slightly elevated but does not necessarily warrant an incident report.
Choice B rationale:
A WBC count of 6,000/mm3 is within a normal range and would not warrant an incident report.
Choice C rationale:
A hemoglobin level of 16 g/dL is within a normal range and does not warrant an incident report.
Choice D rationale:
An aPTT of 90 seconds is significantly prolonged and may indicate excessive anticoagulation from the heparin administration. This could potentially be a safety concern and would warrant an incident report for further evaluation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Older adults are more likely to take multiple medications (polypharmacy), which increases the risk of drug interactions and adverse reactions.
Choice B rationale:
Multiple health problems can result in complex medication regimens and an increased risk of adverse reactions.
Choice C rationale:
The rate of drug absorption tends to decrease with age, not increase.
Choice D rationale:
Decreased percentage of body fat can lead to altered drug distribution and increased risk of drug toxicity.
Choice E rationale:
Decreased renal function affects drug excretion, increasing the risk of drug accumulation and adverse effects.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Morphine tablet is not likely to provide rapid relief within 1 hour for moderate to severe pain.
Choice B rationale:
Fentanyl transmucosa, such as a fentanyl lozenge or transmucosal patch, is a strong opioid analgesic that can provide rapid relief for breakthrough pain.
Choice C rationale:
A lidocaine patch is typically used for localized pain relief and might not provide the desired level of relief for systemic pain.
Choice D rationale:
Naloxone IV is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid overdose. It would not be appropriate to administer naloxone in this situation.
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