A nurse is reviewing the health history for a client who has angina pectoris and a prescription for propranolol hydrochloride PO 40 mg twice daily. Which of the following findings in the history should the nurse report to the provider?
The client has a history of hypertension.
The client has a history of hypothyroidism.
The client has a history of bronchial asthma.
The client has a history of migraine headaches.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: The client has a history of hypertension is not the correct answer. Hypertension is a condition in which the blood pressure is abnormally high, usually above 140/90 mmHg. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that lowers the blood pressure and reduces the workload of the heart. Propranolol is indicated for the treatment of hypertension and angina pectoris, which is a type of chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart. The nurse does not need to report this finding to the provider, as it is consistent with the prescription.
Choice B reason: The client has a history of hypothyroidism is not the correct answer. Hypothyroidism is a condition in which the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormones, which regulate the metabolism and energy levels. Propranolol can mask some of the signs of hypothyroidism, such as tachycardia, tremors, and anxiety. Propranolol can also interfere with the absorption and conversion of thyroid hormones. The nurse should monitor the client's thyroid function tests and report any abnormal values to the provider, but this finding is not a contraindication to the use of propranolol.
Choice C reason: The client has a history of bronchial asthma is the correct answer. Bronchial asthma is a chronic inflammatory disorder of the airways that causes wheezing, coughing, and shortness of breath. Propranolol is a non-selective beta-blocker that blocks the beta-1 receptors in the heart and the beta-2 receptors in the lungs. Blocking the beta-2 receptors can cause bronchoconstriction, which can worsen the symptoms of asthma and trigger an asthma attack. Propranolol is contraindicated in clients who have bronchial asthma, and the nurse should report this finding to the provider immediately.
Choice D reason: The client has a history of migraine headaches is not the correct answer. Migraine headaches are recurrent episodes of severe and throbbing pain, usually on one side of the head, that can be accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and sensitivity to light and sound. Propranolol is effective in preventing migraine headaches, as it reduces the frequency and severity of the attacks. Propranolol is indicated for the prophylaxis of migraine headaches, and the nurse does not need to report this finding to the provider, as it is consistent with the prescription.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is incorrect because dextrose 5% in 0.45% sodium chloride is a hypotonic solution that can cause hemolysis of the RBCs. It can also cause fluid shifts from the intravascular to the intracellular space, leading to edema and hypotension.
Choice B reason: This is correct because 0.9% sodium chloride is a isotonic solution that is compatible with blood products. It does not cause hemolysis or fluid shifts and maintains the osmotic pressure of the blood.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect because lactated Ringer's solution is a isotonic solution that contains electrolytes, such as potassium, calcium, and lactate, that can interfere with the blood products. It can also cause metabolic alkalosis due to the conversion of lactate to bicarbonate.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect because dextrose 5% in water is a hypotonic solution that can cause hemolysis of the RBCs. It can also cause fluid shifts from the intravascular to the intracellular space, leading to edema and hypotension.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Warfarin PO is not a suitable medication for DVT prophylaxis in the immediate postoperative period, as it has a slow onset of action and requires frequent monitoring of the INR (international normalized ratio). Warfarin may be used for long-term anticoagulation, but it is not effective for preventing the formation of new clots.
Choice B reason: Enoxaparin subcutaneous is a suitable medication for DVT prophylaxis in the immediate postoperative period, as it has a rapid onset of action and does not require frequent monitoring of the coagulation status. Enoxaparin is a low-molecular-weight heparin that inhibits the formation of thrombin and prevents the growth of existing clots.
Choice C reason: Aspirin PO is not a suitable medication for DVT prophylaxis in the immediate postoperative period, as it has a weak anticoagulant effect and may increase the risk of bleeding. Aspirin is an antiplatelet agent that inhibits the aggregation of platelets and prevents the formation of arterial clots, but it is not effective for preventing venous clots.
Choice D reason: Heparin infusion is not a suitable medication for DVT prophylaxis in the immediate postoperative period, as it requires continuous intravenous administration and frequent monitoring of the aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time). Heparin is an unfractionated heparin that inhibits the formation of thrombin and prevents the growth of existing clots, but it has a narrow therapeutic window and a high risk of bleeding.
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