A nurse is reviewing the health history for a client who has angina pectoris and a prescription for propranolol hydrochloride PO 40 mg twice daily. Which of the following findings in the history should the nurse report to the provider?
The client has a history of hypertension.
The client has a history of hypothyroidism.
The client has a history of bronchial asthma.
The client has a history of migraine headaches.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: The client has a history of hypertension is not the correct answer. Hypertension is a condition in which the blood pressure is abnormally high, usually above 140/90 mmHg. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that lowers the blood pressure and reduces the workload of the heart. Propranolol is indicated for the treatment of hypertension and angina pectoris, which is a type of chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart. The nurse does not need to report this finding to the provider, as it is consistent with the prescription.
Choice B reason: The client has a history of hypothyroidism is not the correct answer. Hypothyroidism is a condition in which the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormones, which regulate the metabolism and energy levels. Propranolol can mask some of the signs of hypothyroidism, such as tachycardia, tremors, and anxiety. Propranolol can also interfere with the absorption and conversion of thyroid hormones. The nurse should monitor the client's thyroid function tests and report any abnormal values to the provider, but this finding is not a contraindication to the use of propranolol.
Choice C reason: The client has a history of bronchial asthma is the correct answer. Bronchial asthma is a chronic inflammatory disorder of the airways that causes wheezing, coughing, and shortness of breath. Propranolol is a non-selective beta-blocker that blocks the beta-1 receptors in the heart and the beta-2 receptors in the lungs. Blocking the beta-2 receptors can cause bronchoconstriction, which can worsen the symptoms of asthma and trigger an asthma attack. Propranolol is contraindicated in clients who have bronchial asthma, and the nurse should report this finding to the provider immediately.
Choice D reason: The client has a history of migraine headaches is not the correct answer. Migraine headaches are recurrent episodes of severe and throbbing pain, usually on one side of the head, that can be accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and sensitivity to light and sound. Propranolol is effective in preventing migraine headaches, as it reduces the frequency and severity of the attacks. Propranolol is indicated for the prophylaxis of migraine headaches, and the nurse does not need to report this finding to the provider, as it is consistent with the prescription.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Taking this medication with 8 ounces of water is not necessary. Sublingual nitroglycerin tablets are designed to dissolve under the tongue and be absorbed quickly into the bloodstream. Drinking water may interfere with the absorption and effectiveness of the medication.
Choice B reason: Taking one tablet at the first indication of chest pain is the correct instruction. Sublingual nitroglycerin tablets are used to relieve anginal pain by dilating the coronary arteries and improving blood flow to the heart. The client should place one tablet under the tongue as soon as chest pain occurs and wait for it to dissolve.
Choice C reason: Taking one tablet every 15 minutes during an acute attack is not the correct instruction. Sublingual nitroglycerin tablets have a short duration of action and may not provide adequate relief for a prolonged anginal attack. The client should follow the rule of three: take one tablet every 5 minutes for up to three doses. If the pain is not relieved after three doses, the client should call 911 or seek emergency medical attention.
Choice D reason: Taking this medication after each meal and at bedtime is not the correct instruction. Sublingual nitroglycerin tablets are not used for the prevention of angina. They are only used for the treatment of acute anginal episodes. Taking this medication regularly may cause tolerance and reduce its effectiveness.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin, not heparin. Vitamin K reverses the effects of warfarin by increasing the synthesis of clotting factors in the liver.
Choice B reason: Glucagon is the antidote for insulin, not heparin. Glucagon increases the blood glucose level by stimulating the breakdown of glycogen in the liver.
Choice C reason: Protamine is the antidote for heparin, not vitamin K or glucagon. Protamine neutralizes the effects of heparin by binding to it and forming a stable complex.
Choice D reason: Iron is not an antidote for any anticoagulant. Iron is a mineral that is essential for the production of hemoglobin and red blood cells.
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