A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN): glucose 72 mg/dL, chloride 100 mEq/L sodium 138 mEq/L, and potassium 3.0 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

Check the client for a positive Chvostek’s sign

Discontinue the TPN infusion.

Request a potassium replace

Administer glucagon IM

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Check the client for a positive Chvostek’s sign:
Chvostek's sign is a clinical sign of hypocalcemia, not related to the given laboratory values. The symptoms include facial muscle twitching when the facial nerve (VII) is tapped. There's no indication for this assessment based on the provided information.

B. Discontinue the TPN infusion:
The glucose level is within the normal range (70-99 mg/dL). Discontinuing TPN based solely on this glucose level is not warranted.

C. Request a potassium replacement:
The potassium level is low (normal range typically 3.5-5.0 mEq/L). Given the low potassium level, the nurse should plan to request a potassium replacement. Potassium is crucial for various physiological functions, and a deficiency can lead to significant complications.

D. Administer glucagon IM:
Glucagon is used to treat hypoglycemia, but the client's glucose level is within the normal range, so administering glucagon is not indicated.

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Correct Answer is ["1110"]

Explanation

8-oz cup of coffee = 8 oz (since 1 fluid ounce is approximately 30 ml, this is roughly 240 ml).

3 oz of juice = 3 oz (approximately 90 ml).

12 oz of soda = 12 oz (approximately 360 ml).

Water pitcher had 300 ml, and 200 ml remains, so the client consumed 300 ml - 200 ml = 100 ml of water.

IV fluids infusing at 40 mL/hr for 8 hours = 40 ml/hr * 8 hr = 320 ml.

Now, sum up these values:

240 ml (coffee) + 90 ml (juice) + 360 ml (soda) + 100 ml (water) + 320 ml (IV fluids) = 1,110 ml
So, the nurse should document the client's total intake for the shift as 1,110 ml.

A. Headache B. Diarrhea C. Nausea D. Acid indigestion

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Headache: Omeprazole is not primarily used to treat headaches. While it might indirectly alleviate headaches caused by acid reflux or heartburn, its primary purpose is to reduce stomach acid production.

B. Diarrhea: Omeprazole is not typically used to treat diarrhea. Diarrhea can have various causes, including infections or dietary issues, and treatment would depend on the underlying cause.

C. Nausea: While omeprazole may indirectly help with nausea caused by excessive stomach acid, its main role is to reduce acid production. If nausea is due to other causes, such as medications or infections, different treatments might be necessary.

D. Acid indigestion: This is the correct answer. Omeprazole is very effective at relieving symptoms of acid indigestion, heartburn, and gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). It works by reducing the production of stomach acid, thereby alleviating discomfort associated with excess acid.

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A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN): glucose 72 mg/dL, chloride 100 mEq/L sodium 138 mEq/L, and potassium 3.0 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is ["1110"]

Explanation

A nurse is collecting data from a client who has been taking omeprazole for the past 4 weeks. The nurse determines that the medication is effective when the client reports relief from which of the following symptoms?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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