A nurse is reviewing the PT, aPTT, and INR laboratory values for a client who is experiencing an acute episode of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse expect?
The laboratory values are within the expected reference range.
The laboratory values are prolonged.
The laboratory values are the same as the previous test values.
The laboratory values are decreased.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because the laboratory values are not within the expected reference range in a client who has DIC. DIC is a condition that causes abnormal activation of the clotting cascade, leading to widespread microthrombi formation and consumption of clotting factors and platelets. This results in bleeding complications and organ dysfunction.
Choice B Reason: This is correct because the laboratory values are prolonged in a client who has DIC. PT, aPTT, and INR are tests that measure the time it takes for blood to clot. PT measures the extrinsic pathway, aPTT measures the intrinsic pathway, and INR is a standardized ratio of PT. In DIC, these tests are prolonged because of the depletion of clotting factors and platelets.
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because the laboratory values are not the same as the previous test values in a client who has DIC. DIC is an acute and dynamic condition that can change rapidly depending on the underlying cause and treatment. The laboratory values may fluctuate between normal, prolonged, or shortened depending on the balance between clotting and bleeding.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because the laboratory values are not decreased in a client who has DIC. Decreased laboratory values would indicate a shortened clotting time, which can occur in some cases of DIC when there is excessive clotting and thrombosis. However, this is not the typical finding in DIC, as most clients present with bleeding manifestations and prolonged clotting time.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because a thrombotic stroke is caused by a clot that forms in a cerebral artery, usually due to atherosclerosis. It typically occurs gradually and does not cause a sudden, severe headache or seizure.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because an embolic stroke is caused by a clot that travels from another part of the body, such as the heart, to a cerebral artery. It usually occurs abruptly and does not cause vomiting or fever.
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because a transient ischemic atack (TIA) is caused by a temporary interruption of blood flow to a part of the brain. It usually lasts less than an hour and does not cause permanent brain damage or loss of consciousness.
Choice D Reason: This is correct because a hemorrhagic stroke is caused by a rupture of a blood vessel in the brain, resulting in bleeding into the brain tissue or the subarachnoid space. It usually causes a sudden, severe headache, vomiting, seizure, and loss of consciousness. It can also cause elevated blood pressure, fever, and increased intracranial pressure.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A: Contacting the provider for further orders is not necessary, because the client has type AB blood, which is compatible with any other blood type. The client can receive type B blood without any adverse reactions.
Choice B: Notifying the blood bank of the discrepancy is not required, because there is no discrepancy. The blood bank sent the correct type of blood for the client, according to their blood type.
Choice C: Administering the blood as ordered is the correct action, because type B blood is compatible with type AB blood. The client will not have any transfusion reactions or complications from receiving this type of blood.
Choice D: Completing an incident report is not appropriate, because there is no incident. The nurse did not make any error or mistake in administering the blood to the client. There is no need to document or report anything unusual.
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