Here is the edited text:
A nurse is caring for a client who has a traumatic brain injury. The nurse notes that the client has a widening pulse pressure. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Administer a vasodilator medication.
Elevate the head of the bed to 30°.
Apply a cold compress to the forehead.
Decrease the oxygen flow rate.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A Reason: This choice is incorrect because administering a vasodilator medication may lower the blood pressure and worsen the cerebral perfusion. A vasodilator medication is a drug that relaxes the blood vessels and reduces the resistance to blood flow. It may be used for clients who have hypertension, angina, or heart failure, but it does not help to reduce the intracranial pressure (ICP).
Choice B Reason: This choice is correct because elevating the head of the bed to 30° may help to improve the venous drainage and decrease the ICP. ICP is the pressure exerted by the brain tissue, cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), and blood within the cranial cavity. A normal ICP range is 5 to 15 mm Hg, and an elevated ICP (>20 mm Hg) can cause cerebral ischemia, herniation, or death. Therefore, positioning the client in a semi-Fowler's position (30° angle) or high- Fowler's position (60° to 90° angle) can facilitate breathing and prevent further complications.
Choice C Reason: This choice is incorrect because applying a cold compress to the forehead may cause vasoconstriction and increase the ICP. A cold compress is a device that applies cold temperature to a body part to reduce inflammation, pain, or swelling. It may be used for clients who have headaches, sprains, or bruises, but it does not help to reduce the ICP.
Choice D Reason: This choice is incorrect because decreasing the oxygen flow rate may cause hypoxia and worsen the cerebral ischemia. Hypoxia is a condition in which the body or a part of it does not receive enough oxygen. It may cause symptoms such as confusion, agitation, or cyanosis. Therefore, providing adequate oxygenation and ventilation is essential to maintain the brain function and prevent further damage.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This choice is incorrect because hypomagnesemia is not a common finding in the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury. Hypomagnesemia is a condition in which the serum magnesium level is lower than normal (less than 1.5 mEq/L). It may be caused by various factors such as malnutrition, diarrhea, diuretics, or alcohol abuse. It may cause symptoms such as muscle weakness, tremors, tetany, or cardiac arrhythmias.
Choice B Reason: This choice is correct because hyperkalemia is a common finding in the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury. Hyperkalemia is a condition in which the serum potassium level is higher than normal (more than 5 mEq/L). It may be caused by reduced renal excretion of potassium due to decreased urine output (oliguria). It may cause symptoms such as muscle weakness, paresthesia, bradycardia, or cardiac arrest.
Choice C Reason: This choice is incorrect because decreased creatinine level is not a common finding in the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury. Creatinine is a waste product of muscle metabolism that is filtered by the kidneys and excreted in urine. A normal creatinine level ranges from 0.6 to 1.2 mg/dL for men and 0.5 to 1.1 mg/dL for women. In acute kidney injury, creatinine level usually increases due to reduced renal function and impaired clearance of creatinine.
Choice D Reason: This choice is incorrect because increased glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is not a common finding in the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury. GFR is a measure of how well
the kidneys filter blood and remove waste products.
A normal GFR range is 90,to 120 mL/min/1.73 m2. In acute kidney injury, GFR usually decreases due to reduced blood flow,to,the kidneys or damage to the glomeruli, which are the tiny blood vessels that filter blood in the kidneys.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because a client who is post-CABG and has high cholesterol is not in immediate danger, as atorvastatin is a long-term medication that lowers cholesterol and prevents cardiovascular complications.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because a client who has pneumonia and a slightly elevated WBC count is not in immediate danger, as piperacillin is an antibiotic that treats bacterial infections.
Choice C Reason: This is correct because a client who has renal failure and a high serum potassium level is in immediate danger, as sodium polystyrene sulfonate is an emergency medication that lowers potassium and prevents cardiac arrhythmias.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because a client who has anemia and a mild hemoglobin deficiency is not in immediate danger, as epoetin alfa is a long-term medication that stimulates red blood cell production and improves oxygen delivery.
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