A nurse manager is reviewing the steps of the progressive discipline process prior to counseling a staff member who exhibits unprofessional behavior. Identify the sequence of steps the nurse manager should plan to take in response to the staff member's conduct. (Move the steps into the box on the right, placing them in order of performance. Use all the steps.)
Verbally remind the staff member of the expected behaviour changes.
Suspend the staff member from work for several days.
Give the staff member a written warning about the behavior.
Dismiss the staff member from employment at the facility.
Set up a meeting to speak with the staff member about the behavior.
The Correct Answer is E,A,C,B,D
Rationale:
A. Verbally remind the staff member of the expected behaviour changes: After the initial meeting, a verbal reminder reinforces expectations and gives the staff member an opportunity to improve without formal penalties.
B. Suspend the staff member from work for several days: Suspension is used when prior interventions have not resulted in improvement. It serves as a serious consequence, giving time for reflection before returning to work.
C. Give the staff member a written warning about the behavior: A written warning follows a verbal reminder if the unprofessional behavior continues. It creates a formal record and communicates the seriousness of the issue.
D. Dismiss the staff member from employment at the facility: Termination is the final step when all other corrective measures have failed and the behavior persists, ensuring workplace standards and safety are maintained.
E. Set up a meeting to speak with the staff member about the behavior: The first action is to meet privately to discuss the observed behavior, clarify expectations, and begin the progressive discipline process in a constructive manner.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Current fecal impaction: While fecal impaction requires treatment, it is not related to the safety or pharmacologic effects of conjugated estrogen therapy and does not constitute a contraindication.
B. Present report of abdominal pain: Abdominal pain requires evaluation, but it is nonspecific and not an absolute contraindication to conjugated estrogen unless related to certain underlying conditions like liver disease or cancer.
C. Thrombophlebitis: Estrogen increases the risk of thromboembolic events by promoting clot formation. A history or presence of thrombophlebitis makes estrogen therapy unsafe due to the elevated risk of worsening venous thromboembolism.
D. Diverticulitis: Diverticulitis is an inflammatory bowel condition that is not directly affected by estrogen therapy. It would not typically prohibit the use of conjugated estrogen unless complications or comorbidities present additional risks.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Hypotension: Methamphetamines are central nervous system stimulants that typically cause hypertension and tachycardia due to increased sympathetic activity, rather than low blood pressure.
B. Weight loss: Methamphetamines suppress appetite and increase metabolism, which can lead to significant weight loss. This is a common adverse effect associated with chronic use.
C. Somnolence: Stimulant effects of methamphetamines generally cause insomnia and hyperactivity rather than excessive sleepiness. Somnolence is not a typical adverse effect.
D. Lethargy: Methamphetamine use initially produces energy and euphoria. Lethargy may occur only during withdrawal, not as a direct adverse effect of active use.
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