A nurse manager is reviewing the steps of the progressive discipline process prior to counseling a staff member who exhibits unprofessional behavior. Identify the sequence of steps the nurse manager should plan to take in response to the staff member's conduct. (Move the steps into the box on the right, placing them in order of performance. Use all the steps.)
Verbally remind the staff member of the expected behaviour changes.
Suspend the staff member from work for several days.
Give the staff member a written warning about the behavior.
Dismiss the staff member from employment at the facility.
Set up a meeting to speak with the staff member about the behavior.
The Correct Answer is E,A,C,B,D
Rationale:
A. Verbally remind the staff member of the expected behaviour changes: After the initial meeting, a verbal reminder reinforces expectations and gives the staff member an opportunity to improve without formal penalties.
B. Suspend the staff member from work for several days: Suspension is used when prior interventions have not resulted in improvement. It serves as a serious consequence, giving time for reflection before returning to work.
C. Give the staff member a written warning about the behavior: A written warning follows a verbal reminder if the unprofessional behavior continues. It creates a formal record and communicates the seriousness of the issue.
D. Dismiss the staff member from employment at the facility: Termination is the final step when all other corrective measures have failed and the behavior persists, ensuring workplace standards and safety are maintained.
E. Set up a meeting to speak with the staff member about the behavior: The first action is to meet privately to discuss the observed behavior, clarify expectations, and begin the progressive discipline process in a constructive manner.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Rationale:
A. "I recommend that you take this medication as prescribed.": This response dismisses the client’s concern and does not address the possibility of a medication error. It can also undermine trust and ignores the need for verification before administration.
B. "I will call the pharmacist now to check on this medication.": This is the most appropriate response because it prioritizes client safety by verifying the medication before administration. It also acknowledges the client’s concern and involves a qualified resource for confirmation.
C. "Did the doctor discuss with you that there was a change in this medication?": While this could provide insight into changes in therapy, it delays immediate verification and does not address the need to confirm the medication’s accuracy before giving it.
D. "Do you know why this medication is being prescribed for you?": This may promote client education, but it does not address the immediate safety concern or the need to verify the medication before administration.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Acrocyanosis: This is a bluish discoloration of the hands and feet that is common in newborns during the first 24 to 48 hours after birth due to immature circulation. It is not a sign of sepsis.
B. Hypertension: Newborns with sepsis are more likely to present with hypotension due to systemic infection and poor perfusion. Hypertension is not typically associated with neonatal sepsis.
C. Rust-stained urine: This discoloration can occur in newborns from urate crystals in the first few days of life and is considered a normal finding, not an indicator of infection.
D. Retractions: Retractions indicate increased work of breathing and respiratory distress, which can occur in newborn sepsis due to systemic infection affecting respiratory function. This is a concerning finding that warrants prompt evaluation.
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