A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is deciding which clients can be discharged to make beds available for injured clients following a mass casualty event. Which client should the nurse recommend for discharge?
A middle adult who is 36 hr postoperative following an open laminectomy
An adolescent client who was admitted 24 hr ago due to a spontaneous pneumothorax
An older adult client who was admitted for acute pancreatitis
A young adult client who has Crohn's disease and is scheduled for an ileostomy in 24 hr
The Correct Answer is A
Mass casualty triage in inpatient settings prioritizes hospital bed utilization based on clinical stability, postoperative risk phase, and likelihood of rapid decompensation. Patients in stable postoperative recovery with low complication risk may be safely discharged earlier to preserve capacity for high-acuity trauma or critical care admissions.
Rationale:
A. A 36-hour post-open laminectomy patient is typically in early but stable postoperative recovery phase with controlled pain and no immediate high-risk complications if neurologically intact. If stable, discharge is appropriate to free critical beds during surge demand. This group often transitions to outpatient recovery with proper instruction.
B. A spontaneous pneumothorax within 24 hours remains in a high-risk monitoring phase due to potential recurrence, respiratory compromise, or chest tube management needs. Early discharge is unsafe as lung re-expansion and stability must be confirmed with imaging and sustained oxygenation.
C. Acute pancreatitis requires ongoing fluid resuscitation, pain control, and monitoring for systemic complications such as necrosis or sepsis. Discharge is inappropriate during active inflammatory phase due to risk of rapid deterioration and metabolic instability.
D. A client scheduled for ileostomy surgery within 24 hours requires preoperative preparation and is not clinically stable for discharge. This condition involves planned surgical intervention, bowel preparation, and perioperative monitoring, making discharge contraindicated.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Inhalation anthrax, caused by the aerosolized spores of Bacillus anthracis, is a Tier 1 biothreat agent due to its high mortality rate and environmental stability. Once inhaled, spores are transported to the mediastinal lymph nodes, where they germinate and release potent exotoxins. These toxins induce massive edema, hemorrhage, and tissue necrosis, leading to rapid septicemic shock. Protracted antimicrobial therapy is mandatory to eradicate any remaining dormant spores that may germinate after the initial infection.
Rationale:
A. Inhalation anthrax is not transmitted from person to person, meaning it is not contagious like the flu or tuberculosis. Therefore, housemates of an infected client do not require post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) unless they were exposed to the same aerosolized source. Public education must emphasize that there is no risk of secondary transmission through casual contact.
B. The anthrax vaccine is not currently recommended for the general pediatric population. It is typically reserved for high-risk adults, such as military personnel, laboratory workers, or those with direct occupational exposure to contaminated animal products. In a bioterrorism event, its use in children would be determined by public health authorities based on the specific scope of the threat.
C. This is the correct information to include because the standard treatment protocol for inhalation anthrax involves a 60-day course of antibiotics (such as ciprofloxacin or doxycycline). This extended duration is critical because anthrax spores can remain latent in the lungs for weeks before germinating. Ensuring full compliance with the two-month regimen is essential to prevent a fatal relapse.
D. An itchy skin lesion that blisters and eventually forms a black eschar is the hallmark of cutaneous anthrax, not the inhalation form. The initial manifestations of inhalation anthrax are often insidious and flu-like, involving fever, malaise, and a nonproductive cough. Educating the public on these respiratory symptoms is vital for early detection and intervention during a suspected outbreak.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Neurological emergencies require rapid intervention to mitigate ischemic penumbra damage during acute cerebrovascular events. Atherosclerosis predisposes individuals to thrombotic occlusion, leading to focal deficits like dysarthria or facial drooping. Prompt evaluation is critical to assess for cortical lateralization and determine eligibility for thrombolytic therapy or mechanical thrombectomy.
Rationale:
A. Pleuritic chest pain is a classic, expected clinical finding of pericarditis inflammation that typically worsens during deep inspiration. While uncomfortable, this does not represent an immediate hemodynamic collapse or life-threatening emergency. The nurse can address this client’s pain after assessing more unstable individuals.
B. Slurred speech and drooling indicate an acute cerebrovascular accident or stroke, which is a medical emergency. These signs suggest compromised cranial nerves and a high risk for airway aspiration. This client requires the first assessment to initiate time-sensitive stroke protocols and stabilize the airway.
C. A thready pulse in mitral regurgitation suggests decreased stroke volume, but it is often a chronic manifestation of the valvular disorder. While it indicates reduced perfusion, it is less acute than a potential stroke evolving in real-time. This client is the second priority after the neurological emergency.
D. Pectus excavatum is a structural deformity of the chest wall frequently associated with connective tissue disorders like Marfan syndrome. It is a congenital finding and not an acute change requiring immediate nursing intervention or emergency stabilization. This client is the lowest priority for initial assessment.
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