A nurse is going through annual fire safety training. She reads a nearby fire extinguisher and sees that it is marked as class B. Which materials would this fire extinguisher be designed to put out? Select All That Apply.
Oil
Alcohols
Electrical equipment
Plastic
Wood
Correct Answer : A,B
Fire suppression involves interrupting the chemical chain reaction by removing heat, fuel, or oxygen. Class B fires involve flammable liquids like petroleum or gases, requiring agents that smother or inhibit vapor production to prevent thermal decomposition.
Rationale:
A. Oil is a non-polar liquid categorized under Class B hazards. Fire extinguishers for this class utilize aqueous film-forming foam or dry chemicals to create a barrier that interrupts oxygen supply, effectively cooling the fuel surface to stop combustion.
B. Alcohols are polar solvents that burn at high temperatures. Suppression requires specialized alcohol-resistant agents to prevent the foam blanket from dissolving. Class B units are specifically engineered to handle such volatile liquid fires through vapor suppression.
C. Electrical equipment fires are categorized as Class C. Using a Class B extinguisher containing conductive agents could cause electrical shock to the operator. Class C fires require non-conductive extinguishing media like carbon dioxide to safely neutralize the hazard.
D. Plastic is a solid combustible material classified under Class A. These fires typically require the cooling effect of water or multipurpose dry chemicals. Class B extinguishers are not the primary choice for ordinary combustibles like synthetic polymers.
E. Wood is a fibrous material belonging to the Class A category. Effective extinguishment requires deep heat reduction often provided by pressurized water. A standard Class B unit lacks the penetrating power necessary to extinguish deep-seated embers in cellulose-based materials.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A generalized vesiculopustular rash with lesions in the same stage of development is highly suggestive of a viral orthopox infection, consistent with monkeypox, which is transmitted via respiratory droplets, direct contact with lesions, and contaminated fomites. Infection control requires airborne-level precautions due to potential aerosolization during close patient contact and procedures.
Rationale:
A. No respiratory protection is inappropriate because suspected orthopox viral infections require transmission-based precautions. Close-contact spread and droplet dissemination can occur, placing staff at risk without respiratory protection.
B. An N95 particulate respirator provides airborne and droplet protection, filtering infectious particles during close patient care. This is required when managing suspected orthopox infections with rash and systemic viral presentation to prevent inhalation exposure.
C. A surgical mask with eye shield offers droplet protection only, which is insufficient for suspected orthopoxvirus cases. It does not provide adequate filtration of airborne particles during prolonged or close exposure to infected lesions.
D. A double-layered surgical mask does not meet respiratory protection standards for high-risk viral infections. It lacks certified filtration efficiency and does not protect against aerosolized particles or close-contact viral transmission risks.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Evidence-based policy development relies on the hierarchy of clinical evidence synthesis, prioritizing high-quality research such as systematic reviews and peer-reviewed studies. Fall prevention in dementia requires integration of validated risk factor analysis, geriatric safety research, and standardized clinical guidelines to ensure interventions are both effective and generalizable across populations.
Rationale:
A. Peer-reviewed nursing journals provide the strongest foundation of evidence-based practice, including randomized controlled trials and systematic reviews on fall prevention strategies in dementia. These sources ensure scientific validity, reproducibility, and alignment with current best practice guidelines.
B. Clinical expertise contributes to practical application, but it is subjective and varies between practitioners. While valuable in implementation, it is not the primary source for policy creation compared to systematically validated research evidence.
C. Medical record review provides retrospective data analysis specific to a facility but lacks generalizability. It identifies trends but does not establish evidence-based standards for policy development across broader populations.
D. Facility performance indicators reflect quality metrics and outcomes monitoring, but they are outcome measures rather than evidence sources. They are useful for evaluation, not for establishing foundational clinical policy guidelines.
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