A patient has a blood pressure of 135/85 mm Hg on three separate occasions. The nurse understands that this patient should be treated with
a diuretic.
ACE inhibitor.
a beta blocker.
lifestyle changes.
The Correct Answer is D
A. a diuretic: Diuretics are typically considered when lifestyle modifications are insufficient or for higher blood pressure readings. At 135/85 mm Hg, the patient is in the elevated or stage 1 hypertension range, so medication is not the first-line treatment.
B. ACE inhibitor: ACE inhibitors are prescribed for patients with hypertension requiring pharmacologic intervention, particularly with comorbidities like diabetes or heart failure. For borderline or mildly elevated BP, lifestyle changes are preferred initially.
C. a beta blocker: Beta blockers are used in patients with specific cardiovascular indications or higher blood pressure levels. Initiating a beta blocker at 135/85 mm Hg without other risk factors is not standard first-line therapy.
D. lifestyle changes: Nonpharmacologic interventions—such as reducing sodium intake, exercising regularly, limiting alcohol, and maintaining a healthy weight—are first-line treatments for patients with mildly elevated BP. These changes can help prevent progression to stage 2 hypertension and reduce cardiovascular risk.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Enoxaparin (Lovenox) subcutaneous: Enoxaparin is a low-molecular-weight heparin routinely used after orthopedic surgeries to prevent DVT. It provides predictable anticoagulation, is given subcutaneously, and is the standard prophylactic therapy following hip arthroplasty.
B. Clopidogrel (Plavix): This antiplatelet medication is not used for routine DVT prevention after surgery. It is more commonly prescribed for coronary stent management and other arterial thrombotic risks rather than postoperative venous thrombosis.
C. Aspirin PO: Although sometimes used for low-risk joint-replacement patients, it is not the primary or most reliable choice for immediate postoperative prophylaxis. More potent anticoagulation is preferred to prevent deep vein thrombosis after major orthopedic procedures.
D. Heparin infusion: Continuous IV heparin is generally reserved for active DVT treatment or high-risk situations. It is too aggressive for routine prophylaxis and carries greater bleeding risk compared with subcutaneous LMWH.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. inadequate therapeutic effects: A trough level below the therapeutic range indicates insufficient drug concentration in the blood. This may result in the antibiotic being less effective at eliminating the infection, potentially delaying recovery.
B. Excessive adverse effects: Low trough levels reduce the risk of adverse effects rather than causing them. Toxicity and side effects are more likely with elevated drug levels, not subtherapeutic levels.
C. Signs of drug toxicity: Toxicity occurs when drug levels exceed the upper therapeutic limit, not when they are below range. A trough of 1.5 mcg/mL is subtherapeutic, so toxicity is unlikely.
D. Increased risk for superinfection: While prolonged ineffective therapy may increase infection complications over time, the immediate concern with a low trough is inadequate antimicrobial activity rather than direct development of superinfections.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.