A patient has been diagnosed with ST-elevated myocardial infarction. The nurse anticipates administering which of the following medications?
(Select All that Apply.)
Furosemide
Nitroglycerin
Aspirin
Penicillin
Morphine
Correct Answer : B,C,E
A. Furosemide is a loop diuretic used to manage fluid overload, often seen in conditions like heart failure. While it can be helpful for patients with heart failure or fluid retention, it is not a primary medication for the acute management of STEMI.
B. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator used to relieve chest pain and reduce myocardial oxygen demand by decreasing the workload of the heart. It is commonly administered to patients with STEMI to manage angina and help improve blood flow to the heart.
C. Aspirin is a crucial medication in the management of STEMI. It works by inhibiting platelet aggregation, which helps to prevent further clot formation in the coronary arteries. Aspirin is typically given as soon as a myocardial infarction is diagnosed to minimize the extent of heart damage and reduce the risk of further thrombotic events.
D. Penicillin is an antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections. It is not used in the management of STEMI because myocardial infarctions are not caused by bacterial infections. Penicillin would not be relevant for treating or managing a STEMI.
E. Morphine is an opioid analgesic used to relieve severe pain associated with STEMI. It helps reduce pain, anxiety, and myocardial oxygen demand by causing vasodilation. It also helps manage symptoms and improve patient comfort.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. A 4 cm aneurysm in a young patient, especially one as young as 28 years old, would typically be monitored more closely rather than immediately undergoing surgery. Surgical intervention is more commonly considered for larger aneurysms or in cases where there are other risk factors or symptoms present.
B. Marfan's syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects connective tissue and is associated with a higher risk of developing aortic aneurysms, including abdominal aortic aneurysms. Patients with Marfan's syndrome are at a greater risk of aneurysm growth and rupture due to the weakened connective tissue.
C. Hypertension is a significant risk factor for the growth and rupture of an AAA. While managing hypertension with beta-blockers is important in controlling the risk, the presence of hypertension alone does not necessarily indicate that surgical intervention is immediately necessary
D. While patient concerns and anxiety about their condition are valid and important, expressing concern about dying does not directly determine the need for surgical intervention. Surgical decisions are based on objective clinical criteria, such as the size of the aneurysm, growth rate, symptoms, and overall health of the patient.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) refers to the thickening of the walls of the left ventricle, which often results from chronic high blood pressure or other conditions that increase the workload on the heart. While LVH is an important cardiac issue, it is not a direct complication of pericarditis.
B. Increased cardiac output (the volume of blood the heart pumps per minute) is generally not a direct complication of pericarditis. In fact, pericarditis often affects cardiac output in a different way.
C. Cardiac tamponade is a serious and potentially life-threatening complication of pericarditis. It occurs when fluid accumulates in the pericardial space, exerting pressure on the heart and impeding its ability to fill and pump effectively. This condition can lead to reduced cardiac output, hypotension, and symptoms of shock.
D. Hypertension (high blood pressure) is a common condition that can contribute to a range of cardiovascular issues, but it is not a direct complication of pericarditis.
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