A patient is prescribed 800 mg of quetiapine per day, divided into two doses. If quetiapine is available in 200 mg tablets, how many tablets should be given per dose?
2 tablets.
4 tablets.
5 tablets.
3 tablets.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: The total daily dose of quetiapine is 800 mg, divided into two doses, meaning each dose is 400 mg (800 mg ÷ 2). With 200 mg tablets, each dose requires 400 mg ÷ 200 mg = 2 tablets. This is the correct calculation for the number of tablets per dose.
Choice B reason: Four tablets per dose would result in 800 mg per dose (4 × 200 mg), totaling 1600 mg daily, which doubles the prescribed daily dose of 800 mg. This is incorrect and could lead to an overdose.
Choice C reason: Five tablets per dose would result in 1000 mg per dose (5 × 200 mg), totaling 2000 mg daily, far exceeding the prescribed 800 mg daily dose. This is incorrect and unsafe.
Choice D reason: Three tablets per dose would result in 600 mg per dose (3 × 200 mg), totaling 1200 mg daily, which exceeds the prescribed 800 mg daily dose. This is incorrect and not aligned with the prescription.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason:Placing a client in a seclusion room is not appropriate unless they pose an immediate safety risk to themselves or others. Seclusion can increase agitation in a manic client and is not a standard room assignment for managing mania.
Choice B reason:A private room close to the nursing station allows for close monitoring of the client’s behavior, which is critical during the manic phase due to impulsivity and high energy. This setup ensures safety while providing a controlled environment without unnecessary isolation.
Choice C reason:A private room in a quiet location may reduce stimulation, which is beneficial, but it may limit the ability to closely monitor the client. Proximity to the nursing station is preferred to ensure rapid intervention if needed.
Choice D reason:A semi-private room with a roommate who has a similar diagnosis could lead to overstimulation or conflict, as two manic clients may exacerbate each other’s symptoms. A private room is more appropriate for managing mania.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason:Clozapine is an antipsychotic used primarily for schizophrenia, not for preventing seizures. While it may lower the seizure threshold as a side effect, it is not prescribed for seizure control, making this statement incorrect.
Choice B reason:Clozapine is typically administered orally, not by intramuscular injection every 2 weeks. Long-acting injectable antipsychotics exist, but clozapine is not one of them, so this statement does not reflect correct understanding.
Choice C reason:Clozapine can cause orthostatic hypotension, leading to dizziness or fainting upon standing. Rising slowly from a lying position helps prevent this, indicating the client understands an important precaution for safe use of the medication.
Choice D reason:Ringing in the ears (tinnitus) is not a common side effect of clozapine. More common side effects include sedation, weight gain, and agranulocytosis, so this statement does not show correct understanding.
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