A patient who is admitted with shortness of breath has a tracing with atrial fibrillation at 140 beats/minute of unknown duration. The nurse begins oxygen per nasal cannula and establishes a saline lock. Which should the nurse prepare to implement next?
Transvenous pacemaker placement.
Heparin infusion.
Lidocaine IVPB.
Sedation for cardioversion.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Transvenous pacemaker placement: A pacemaker is indicated for bradyarrhythmias or heart blocks, not for tachyarrhythmias like atrial fibrillation. This patient’s rapid atrial fibrillation does not warrant pacing and requires rate control and anticoagulation instead.
B. Heparin infusion: In new-onset atrial fibrillation of unknown duration, anticoagulation is essential to prevent thromboembolism, especially before attempting cardioversion. Heparin is typically initiated to reduce stroke risk while further evaluation is performed.
C. Lidocaine IVPB: Lidocaine is an antiarrhythmic used mainly for ventricular arrhythmias such as ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation. It is not effective for atrial fibrillation and is not part of AF management protocols.
D. Sedation for cardioversion: Cardioversion may be appropriate, but not until thrombus risk is evaluated and anticoagulation is established. In AF of unknown duration, immediate cardioversion is avoided unless the patient is unstable, to prevent embolic complications.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is []
Explanation
- Myocardial infarction (MI): The client reports chest pain rated 8/10, radiating to the left arm, and has ST segment elevation on ECG. These findings are classic for ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), requiring immediate intervention.
- Draw laboratory cardiac markers: Troponin and other cardiac enzymes are critical for confirming myocardial injury. They help guide diagnosis, treatment, and monitoring of MI progression or resolution.
- Insert two peripheral IV (PIV) access devices: Dual IV access ensures reliable and rapid administration of emergency medications, fluids, or thrombolytics. This is vital for stabilizing the client during acute cardiac events.
- Pain level: Ongoing pain assessment is essential for monitoring myocardial ischemia, evaluating treatment response, and guiding further interventions to prevent cardiac tissue damage.
- 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG): Continuous or repeated ECGs help detect changes in ST segments, arrhythmias, or infarct progression. It’s crucial in monitoring the effectiveness of interventions and early detection of complications.
- Reflux: While reflux may cause chest discomfort, it is not associated with ST elevation or arm radiation. These findings are cardiac in nature and point away from gastrointestinal causes.
- Costochondritis: This musculoskeletal condition causes localized chest pain but does not result in ECG changes or radiating pain. It is not supported by the client's data.
- Atrial fibrillation (A-fib): The client has a normal heart rate and regular rhythm. A-fib would show an irregular rhythm on ECG, not ST elevation, and is not the suspected diagnosis here.
- Insert nasogastric tube (NGT) for nutritional intake: An NGT is not a priority for a client with acute chest pain. The focus should be on stabilizing cardiac function rather than nutritional support.
- Consult nutritionist: Nutritional counseling may be relevant later, but it is not an acute intervention during a suspected myocardial infarction.
- Begin strict bedrest: While activity should be limited, “strict bedrest” is not always necessary and may lead to complications like DVT. The client’s mobility orders depend on cardiac stability.
- Intake and output: While important in general care, it is not as immediately critical in early MI management as pain and ECG monitoring.
- Nutritional intake: Nutritional monitoring is not an immediate priority during acute chest pain evaluation and cardiac stabilization.
- Peripheral edema: Edema may indicate chronic heart failure, but it is not a key indicator for acute myocardial infarction or urgent follow-up in this scenario.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Compensated respiratory acidosis with hypoxia: The pH is at the low end of normal (7.35), PaCO₂ is elevated (60 mm Hg), and HCO₃⁻ is also elevated (35 mEq/L), indicating the kidneys are compensating for chronic respiratory acidosis. The PaO₂ is low (60 mm Hg), confirming hypoxia.
B. Compensated respiratory alkalosis with normal oxygenation: Respiratory alkalosis would be indicated by a high pH and low PaCO₂, which are not present here. Also, the client is hypoxic, not normally oxygenated, as shown by the PaO₂ of 60 mm Hg.
C. Acute respiratory acidosis: In acute respiratory acidosis, the PaCO₂ would be high with a low pH and little to no elevation in HCO₃⁻. The elevated HCO₃⁻ here shows that compensation has occurred, indicating the condition is not acute.
D. Normal acid-base balance: Although the pH falls within normal limits, the PaCO₂ and HCO₃⁻ are significantly abnormal. The body has compensated for the respiratory acidosis, but the acid-base balance is not normal due to the underlying pathology and associated hypoxia.
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