A patient with septic shock develops Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC). Which pathophysiological process should the nurse identify as the cause of the coagulation problem?

Production of extra platelets.

Depletion of clotting factors.

Inhibition of red blood cell production.

Activation of complement pathways.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A rationale

Production of extra platelets is not the primary pathophysiological process in Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC). While the body may try to produce more platelets in response to the widespread clotting, this is not the cause of the coagulation problem.

Choice B rationale

Depletion of clotting factors is a key feature of DIC. In the initial phase of DIC, there is an overactive clotting process leading to the formation of small blood clots throughout the body’s blood vessels. This overactive clotting uses up platelets and clotting factors, leading to a state where the body is unable to control bleeding, which is the second phase of DIC34.

Choice C rationale

Inhibition of red blood cell production is not a primary feature of DIC. While DIC can lead to anemia due to blood loss from excessive bleeding, it does not directly inhibit the production of red blood cells.

Choice D rationale

Activation of complement pathways is part of the body’s immune response and is not the primary cause of the coagulation problem in DIC34.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Instructing the patient that it is important to reduce the dose of the medication gradually is the best course of action. Temazepam is a benzodiazepine, and abrupt discontinuation can lead to withdrawal symptoms, which can be severe and include seizures. Therefore, it’s crucial to taper off the medication under the supervision of a healthcare provider.

Choice B rationale

Advising the patient to stop taking the medication immediately is not recommended due to the risk of withdrawal symptoms.

Choice C rationale

Encouraging the patient to obtain a prescription for a benzodiazepine antagonist is not typically the first line of action when discontinuing temazepam.

Choice D rationale

Discussing with the patient that there may be a need for additional sleep if the feeling of fatigue is present the next day is not directly addressing the issue. The patient’s feelings of being “hungover” are likely due to the effects of the medication, not a lack of sleep.

A. Watery diarrhea. B. Increased fatigue. C. Nausea and headache. D. Yellow-tinged sputum.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Watery diarrhea is a significant side effect of linezolid and could indicate a serious condition called antibiotic-associated colitis, which is caused by an overgrowth of the bacterium Clostridium difficile. This condition requires immediate medical attention.

Choice B rationale

Increased fatigue is a common side effect of many medications, including linezolid. While it should be reported to the healthcare provider, it is not as urgent as watery diarrhea.

Choice C rationale

Nausea and headache are common side effects of linezolid. While they should be reported to the healthcare provider, they are not as urgent as watery diarrhea.

Choice D rationale

Yellow-tinged sputum could indicate an infection or other lung condition. However, in the context of a patient receiving linezolid for nosocomial pneumonia, it is not as urgent as watery diarrhea.

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A patient with septic shock develops Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC). Which pathophysiological process should the nurse identify as the cause of the coagulation problem?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A patient taking temazepam informs you, the nurse, of plans to quit taking the medication due to feelings of being “hungover” the next day.What action should you implement?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A patient is receiving linezolid IV for nosocomial pneumonia.Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A client newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus (DM) asks the nurse to leave the room when the nurse tries to teach self-administration of insulin injections.What should the nurse do next?

The nurse is reviewing the nurse’s notes and flow chart to identify trends.Which notations require immediate follow-up?

Exhibits After the nurse assesses the client, the healthcare provider writes prescriptions. The nurse reviews the prescriptions. Which 2 prescriptions should the nurse complete first?

A parent brings their 2-month-old infant to the clinic to receive the recommended primary vaccines.Which instruction should the nurse provide the parent about care of the infant after the injections?

A parent brings a 4-month-old infant to the clinic.The infant has had a runny nose, a slight fever, and a cough for the last two days.Which of the following findings should alert the nurse that the child is in acute respiratory distress?

After an unsuccessful resuscitation attempt, the nurse calls the family of the deceased.The family wishes to see the body before it is taken to the funeral home.Which interventions should the nurse take to prepare the body before the family enters the room? Select all that apply.

Exhibits The nurse notifies the healthcare provider of the client’s status. The healthcare provider comes to the bedside to evaluate the client. Which should the nurse do? Select all that apply. Potential Actions