A psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner is employed at an inpatient substance abuse facility. A new patient is a 33-year-old man who recently overdosed on fentanyl and had to be resuscitated with naloxone. Activation of which opioid receptor triggers respiratory depression?
Mu
Kappa
Delta
Omega
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: The mu-opioid receptor is primarily responsible for the analgesic and euphoric effects of opioids, but it also mediates respiratory depression. Fentanyl, a potent mu-opioid receptor agonist, can cause life-threatening respiratory suppression, which is reversed by naloxone, a mu-opioid antagonist.
Choice B reason: The kappa-opioid receptor is involved in analgesia and dysphoria but does not significantly contribute to respiratory depression. Its activation may produce sedation but not the profound respiratory effects seen with mu receptor activation.
Choice C reason: The delta-opioid receptor plays a role in modulating mood and analgesia but is not primarily associated with respiratory depression. Its effects are less potent and less clinically relevant in overdose scenarios.
Choice D reason: Omega is not a recognized opioid receptor subtype. It is not involved in opioid pharmacodynamics and is not relevant to respiratory depression.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Opioid withdrawal typically presents with symptoms such as muscle aches, diarrhea, rhinorrhea, and yawning. While restlessness and insomnia may occur, tremors and autonomic instability (e.g., elevated pulse and sweating) are more characteristic of alcohol withdrawal.
Choice B reason: Alcohol withdrawal is marked by autonomic hyperactivity (elevated pulse, sweating), tremors, nausea, agitation, and insomnia. These symptoms match the clinical presentation described. If untreated, it can progress to delirium tremens, which includes hallucinations and seizures.
Choice C reason: Sedative, hypnotic, or anxiolytic withdrawal (e.g., benzodiazepines) can resemble alcohol withdrawal but typically includes more pronounced anxiety, irritability, and risk of seizures. However, the classic signs of autonomic hyperactivity and tremors are more strongly associated with alcohol withdrawal.
Choice D reason: Stimulant withdrawal often includes fatigue, depression, increased appetite, and sleep disturbances. It does not typically present with tremors, autonomic instability, or nausea, making it less likely in this case.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Rheumatic fever can lead to valvular heart disease, particularly affecting the left-sided valves, but it is not the primary pathophysiology in IV drug users with infective endocarditis. It is unrelated to the acute presentation in this case.
Choice B reason: IV drug use introduces pathogens directly into the bloodstream, often leading to infection of the right-sided heart valves, particularly the tricuspid valve. Staphylococcus aureus is the most common causative organism. This pathophysiology is well-documented and explains the development of IE in IV drug users.
Choice C reason: While HIV may increase susceptibility to infections due to immunosuppression, it is not the direct cause of infective endocarditis. The primary mechanism in this case is bacterial seeding of the heart valves via IV drug use.
Choice D reason: This statement is incorrect. IV drug use is a major risk factor for infective endocarditis due to repeated introduction of bacteria into the bloodstream and damage to cardiac valves.
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