A short-acting agent that can be administered for sedation and anesthesia is:

midazolam (Versed).

morphine sulfate.

propofol (Diprivan).

vecuronium (Norcuron).

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Rationale:

A. Midazolam is a benzodiazepine used for sedation, anxiolysis, and amnesia, but it has a longer duration than some agents like propofol. While it is short-acting compared to other benzodiazepines, it is primarily for procedural sedation rather than rapid-onset general anesthesia.

B. Morphine is an opioid analgesic, not a sedative or anesthetic. It provides pain relief and may cause sedation as a side effect, but it is not used to induce anesthesia.

C. Propofol is a short-acting intravenous anesthetic agent commonly used for induction and maintenance of general anesthesia as well as procedural sedation. It has a rapid onset and brief duration, making it ideal for situations where quick recovery from sedation is desired.

D. Vecuronium is a neuromuscular blocking agent used to produce muscle relaxation during surgery or mechanical ventilation. It does not have sedative or anesthetic properties and cannot be used alone to induce anesthesia.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Rationale:
A. The patient says her right leg aches all night is incorrect. While pain is an important subjective symptom, it is less specific than objective signs. The physician will want concrete findings that indicate possible recurrent or worsening DVT, not just general discomfort.

B. The right calf is warm to the touch and is larger than the left calf is correct. These are classic objective signs of deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is especially concerning given her recent history of DVT and pulmonary embolism. Calf swelling, warmth, and asymmetry indicate possible thrombus progression or recurrence, which is a medical emergency that requires immediate physician notification for anticoagulation or further imaging.

C. The patient is unable to remember her husband's name is incorrect in this context. Memory loss may indicate cognitive impairment, delirium, or infection, but it is not directly related to her recent thromboembolic history. While important to document, it is not the most urgent finding to communicate regarding DVT risk.

D. There are multiple ecchymotic areas on the patient's arms is incorrect. Ecchymosis may suggest bruising from trauma, anticoagulation, or bleeding disorders, but in isolation it does not indicate an acute thromboembolic event. While noteworthy, the priority concern in this patient is signs of recurrent DVT, given her history.

A. Metabolic alkalosis B. Metabolic acidosis C. Respiratory alkalosis D. Respiratory acidosis

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Rationale:

A. Metabolic alkalosis is incorrect because alkalosis would present with an elevated pH (>7.45) and an elevated HCO3⁻. This client has the opposite pattern (low pH and low HCO3⁻).

B. Metabolic acidosis is correct. The low pH (7.28) confirms acidosis, and the decreased HCO3⁻ (18 mEq/L) identifies the metabolic system as the primary cause. The PaCO2 is normal, indicating little to no respiratory compensation at this time. Metabolic acidosis can occur in conditions such as diabetic ketoacidosis, renal failure, severe diarrhea (bicarbonate loss), or lactic acidosis.

C. Respiratory alkalosis is incorrect because respiratory alkalosis would show an elevated pH and a decreased PaCO2 (<35 mm Hg). This client’s pH is low (acidic), and PaCO2 is normal.

D. Respiratory acidosis is incorrect because respiratory acidosis would show a low pH and an elevated PaCO2 (>45 mm Hg) due to carbon dioxide retention. This client’s PaCO2 is normal, ruling out a primary respiratory cause.

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A short-acting agent that can be administered for sedation and anesthesia is:

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A 50-year old female arrives to the EC with flu-like symptoms. You learn that she was recently hospitalized with a right leg deep vein thrombosis and a pulmonary embolism. Which assessment information will you need to communicate to the physician?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse is reviewing a client's laboratory report of arterial blood gas (ABG) findings: pH 7.28, HCO3 18 mEq/L, and PaCO2 36 mm Hg. Which of the following conditions should the nurse anticipate when interpreting these findings?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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A short-acting agent that can be administered for sedation and anesthesia is:

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