A type of anemia often caused by blood loss or poor diet is
Hemolytic
Sickle-cell
Pernicious
Iron-deficiency
The Correct Answer is D
A. Hemolytic is incorrect because hemolytic anemia occurs when red blood cells are destroyed faster than they are produced, often due to autoimmune disorders, infections, certain medications, or inherited conditions. It is not primarily caused by dietary deficiency or blood loss.
B. Sickle-cell is incorrect because sickle-cell anemia is a genetic disorder in which abnormal hemoglobin causes red blood cells to take on a sickle shape, leading to hemolysis and impaired oxygen transport. Diet and blood loss do not cause this condition.
C. Pernicious is incorrect because pernicious anemia is caused by vitamin B12 deficiency, often due to the lack of intrinsic factor in the stomach, leading to impaired red blood cell production. While diet can contribute in rare cases, it is usually related to malabsorption, not simple dietary insufficiency.
D. Iron-deficiency is correct because this type of anemia results from insufficient iron, which is necessary for hemoglobin production. It is commonly caused by chronic blood loss (e.g., menstruation, gastrointestinal bleeding) or a diet low in iron. Without adequate iron, the body cannot produce enough hemoglobin, leading to small, pale red blood cells and symptoms like fatigue, pallor, shortness of breath, and dizziness. Iron supplementation and dietary changes are the main treatments.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. 31.5 %: Underestimates TBSA; likely missed one major area such as the anterior torso or leg portion.
B. Using the Rule of Nines for adults: Entire front of torso (anterior trunk) = 18%, entire right arm = 9%; front of right leg (anterior half of one leg) = 9%; face and front of neck (anterior head/neck) = 4.5%. Total TBSA = 18 + 9 + 9 + 4.5 = 40.5%
C. 49.5 %: Overestimates TBSA; may have incorrectly counted the entire leg (18%) instead of just the front (9%).
D. 36 %: Slight underestimation; possibly omitted the face/neck portion (4.5%).
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","E"]
Explanation
A. Development of an odd-shaped lesion or new mole is correct because new or unusually shaped lesions can indicate abnormal cell growth. The appearance of a mole that differs from existing moles (the “ugly duckling” sign) is a warning sign of potential skin cancer.
B. A lesion that does not heal is correct because non-healing sores, ulcers, or lesions can indicate skin malignancy, particularly squamous cell carcinoma or melanoma. Persistent lesions should be evaluated promptly.
C. A change in the shape, color, or size of a mole is correct because changes in a mole are part of the ABCDE warning signs of melanoma. Rapid changes or irregular features are concerning for malignancy.
D. Freckles that darken slightly with sun exposure is incorrect because normal freckles darken with UV exposure but are not considered warning signs. This is a physiologic response to sunlight, not indicative of cancer.
E. Skin lesions that repeatedly bleed is correct because recurrent bleeding, especially from a mole, lesion, or sore, is a classic warning sign of malignant transformation. Bleeding often occurs due to fragile, abnormal blood vessels within the lesion.
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