A type of anemia often caused by blood loss or poor diet is
Hemolytic
Sickle-cell
Pernicious
Iron-deficiency
The Correct Answer is D
A. Hemolytic is incorrect because hemolytic anemia occurs when red blood cells are destroyed faster than they are produced, often due to autoimmune disorders, infections, certain medications, or inherited conditions. It is not primarily caused by dietary deficiency or blood loss.
B. Sickle-cell is incorrect because sickle-cell anemia is a genetic disorder in which abnormal hemoglobin causes red blood cells to take on a sickle shape, leading to hemolysis and impaired oxygen transport. Diet and blood loss do not cause this condition.
C. Pernicious is incorrect because pernicious anemia is caused by vitamin B12 deficiency, often due to the lack of intrinsic factor in the stomach, leading to impaired red blood cell production. While diet can contribute in rare cases, it is usually related to malabsorption, not simple dietary insufficiency.
D. Iron-deficiency is correct because this type of anemia results from insufficient iron, which is necessary for hemoglobin production. It is commonly caused by chronic blood loss (e.g., menstruation, gastrointestinal bleeding) or a diet low in iron. Without adequate iron, the body cannot produce enough hemoglobin, leading to small, pale red blood cells and symptoms like fatigue, pallor, shortness of breath, and dizziness. Iron supplementation and dietary changes are the main treatments.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Decreased kidney production of erythropoietin is correct because in end-stage renal failure, the kidneys lose their ability to produce adequate amounts of erythropoietin, a hormone that stimulates the bone marrow to produce red blood cells. Without sufficient erythropoietin, red blood cell production decreases, leading to anemia. This is one of the most common causes of anemia in chronic kidney disease.
B. Increased hemoglobin levels in the blood is incorrect because anemia is characterized by decreased hemoglobin levels, not increased. End-stage renal disease leads to reduced red blood cell production, which lowers hemoglobin levels.
C. Decreased red blood cell destruction is incorrect because decreased destruction would actually increase red blood cell count, not cause anemia. In renal failure, anemia is mainly due to decreased production, not reduced destruction.
D. Increased glomerular filtration in the kidneys is incorrect because end-stage renal failure is associated with a decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR), not increased. Reduced filtration contributes to the accumulation of waste products but does not directly cause anemia in the way decreased erythropoietin does.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Bacterial overgrowth of highly contagious S. aureus with development of vesicles and pruritus is incorrect because this description applies to impetigo, which is a superficial bacterial skin infection. Psoriasis is an autoimmune condition and is not contagious, so bacteria are not the primary cause.
B. Abnormal T-cell activation leading to excessive growth of keratinocytes and rapid epidermal shedding is correct because psoriasis is driven by dysregulation of the immune system. In this condition, T-cells become overactive and release cytokines that stimulate keratinocyte proliferation at an accelerated rate. Normally, keratinocytes take about 28–30 days to mature and shed, but in psoriasis, this process can occur in 3–5 days. The rapid turnover results in thickened, scaly plaques, redness, and inflammation. Chronic inflammation also contributes to the pruritus, discomfort, and erythema seen in affected areas. Triggers such as stress, infections, or certain medications may exacerbate the condition but do not cause it directly.
C. Sensitization on first exposure to an allergen with rash development on subsequent exposure is incorrect because this describes allergic contact dermatitis, where the immune system reacts to a previously encountered allergen. Psoriasis, in contrast, is autoimmune and does not require prior allergen exposure. The lesions are caused by internal immune dysregulation, not external sensitization.
D. Latent virus becomes reactivated by infection or stress, leading to development of skin lesions is incorrect because this mechanism describes viral conditions such as shingles (herpes zoster). Psoriasis is not caused by a virus, and the plaques and scales result from keratinocyte hyperproliferation due to immune dysregulation rather than viral reactivation.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
