A woman arrives at the clinic for a pregnancy test. Her last menstrual period (LMP) was March 14, 2024. What is the client's expected date of birth (EDB)?
December 7, 2025
December 21, 2024
December 17, 2024
November 17, 2024
The Correct Answer is B
A. December 7, 2025: This date is over a year late, likely due to miscalculation in applying Naegele’s Rule.
B. To calculate the expected date of birth (EDB), use Naegele’s Rule, which estimates a 40-week gestation from the first day of the last menstrual period:
- Start with the LMP: March 14, 2024
- Add 1 year: March 14, 2025
- Subtract 3 months: December 14, 2024
- Add 7 days: December 21, 2024
This calculation assumes a 28-day menstrual cycle and provides a standard method for estimating the due date.
C. December 17, 2024: This is four days early, possibly due to an arithmetic error in adding 7 days.
D. November 17, 2024: This is too early, likely due to subtracting months incorrectly or misinterpreting the rule.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Vaginal examination findings are documented in the order of cervical dilation / cervical effacement / fetal station. In this case, 6/90%/−1 means the cervix is 6 cm dilated, 90% effaced, and the fetal presenting part is at −1 station. Fetal station describes the relationship of the presenting part to the ischial spines, which are designated as station 0. Negative numbers indicate the presenting part is above the ischial spines, and positive numbers indicate it is below. Therefore, a station of −1 means the presenting part is 1 cm above the ischial spines, making this interpretation correct.
B. The first number in the documentation represents cervical dilation. A dilation of 6 cm indicates active labor. A dilation of 1 cm would be documented as 1/—/—, not 6, so this interpretation is incorrect.
C. A presenting part that is 1 cm below the ischial spines would be documented as +1 station. Because the finding is −1 station, this option incorrectly interprets the fetal position.
D. The second number represents cervical effacement. An effacement of 90% means the cervix is almost completely thinned and ready for delivery. An effacement of 70% does not match the documented finding and is therefore inaccurate.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Profuse, clear vaginal discharge is not characteristic of a hydatidiform mole. Vaginal bleeding associated with this condition is usually dark brown or bright red, often described as “prune juice–like”, rather than clear discharge.
B. An irregular fetal heart rate would be expected in a viable pregnancy with fetal distress, but a hydatidiform mole involves abnormal trophoblastic proliferation without a viable fetus (in most complete moles), so fetal heart activity is typically absent.
C. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) levels are usually markedly elevated, not declining, in a hydatidiform mole due to abnormal proliferation of trophoblastic tissue. A rapid decline in hCG would be expected after treatment, not during initial presentation.
D. Excessive uterine enlargement is a classic finding in hydatidiform mole. The uterus is often larger than expected for gestational age due to abnormal growth of trophoblastic tissue and fluid-filled vesicles. This finding, along with markedly elevated hCG and abnormal vaginal bleeding, is a key diagnostic clue for this condition.
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