A woman in labor who received an opioid for pain relief develops respiratory depression.
The nurse would expect which agent to be administered?.
Butorphanol.
Promethazine.
Fentanyl.
Naloxone.
The Correct Answer is D
Answer and explanation
Choice A rationale:
Butorphanol is an opioid agonist-antagonist. It would not be the first choice to treat opioid-induced respiratory depression because it can also cause respiratory depression.
Choice B rationale:
Promethazine is an antihistamine that has sedative effects and could potentially worsen respiratory depression.
Choice C rationale:
Fentanyl is a potent opioid and would likely exacerbate respiratory depression.
Choice D rationale:
Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse the effects of opioids such as respiratory depression.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Perinatal transmission is a way HIV can be transmitted, but it’s not the primary means for adolescents.
Choice B rationale:
Sexual intercourse is the primary means by which adolescents are exposed to HIV.
Choice C rationale:
Sharing needles for IV drug use is a risk factor, but not the primary means for adolescents.
Choice D rationale:
Blood transfusion was a common means of transmission in the past, but it’s rare now due to rigorous screening.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Station -2 means the presenting part is 2 cm above the ischial spines. Engagement usually occurs at 0 station.
Choice B rationale:
Station +1 means the presenting part is 1 cm below the ischial spines. This usually occurs during labor, not necessarily at engagement.
Choice C rationale:
Station 0 means the presenting part is at the level of the ischial spines. This is typically when engagement occurs.
Choice D rationale:
Station -1 means the presenting part is 1 cm above the ischial spines. Engagement usually occurs at 0 station.
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