After a client voids, 150 mL of residual urine is measured. Which nursing problem should be included in this client’s plan of care?

Imbalanced nutrition.

Deficient fluid volume.

Risk for infection.

Urinary incontinence.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A reason: Imbalanced nutrition is unrelated to 150 mL residual urine, which indicates incomplete bladder emptying, often from detrusor dysfunction or obstruction. Nutrition affects overall health but does not cause retention. Residual urine increases infection risk due to stasis, making nutrition an irrelevant nursing problem for this urinary issue.

Choice B reason: Deficient fluid volume suggests dehydration, reducing urine output, not causing high residual volumes. Residual urine (150 mL) indicates retention from impaired bladder emptying, not fluid deficit. Hydration prevents stasis, but infection risk from retained urine is more immediate, as bacteria proliferate in stagnant urine.

Choice C reason: Residual urine of 150 mL signifies incomplete bladder emptying, often from obstruction or neurogenic bladder, leading to urinary stasis. This fosters bacterial growth, increasing urinary tract infection (UTI) risk. Including “risk for infection” addresses this pathophysiological concern, guiding interventions like catheterization to reduce infection likelihood.

Choice D reason: Urinary incontinence involves involuntary leakage, not retention, where the bladder fails to empty, as seen with 150 mL residual urine. Retention results from outflow obstruction or weak detrusor, distinct from incontinence’s loss of control, making this nursing problem inappropriate for the client’s condition.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Elevated glucose (190 mg/dL) in pancreatitis needs monitoring but is less urgent than severe neutropenia (ANC <500/mm3), which risks life-threatening infections. Glucose can be managed with insulin, per diabetes and pancreatitis care protocols, but neutropenia requires immediate intervention.

Choice B reason: Hemoglobin of 7.0 g/dL in a GI bleed is critical but less immediate, as the client is receiving a transfusion. Neutropenia (ANC <500/mm3) poses an urgent infection risk, requiring isolation. Transfusion addresses anemia, per bleeding and hematology care standards.

Choice C reason: An ANC <500/mm3 indicates severe neutropenia, posing an immediate infection risk in cancer patients, requiring urgent isolation and antibiotics. This rapid drop from 2,000/mm3 demands priority intervention to prevent sepsis, per oncology and infection control protocols in nursing practice.

Choice D reason: Elevated bilirubin in hepatitis is concerning but less urgent than neutropenia (ANC <500/mm3), which risks sepsis. Jaundice requires monitoring and treatment, but severe infection risk takes precedence, per liver disease and critical care prioritization standards in nursing practice.

A. Obtain another measurement of the client’s blood pressure. B. Determine what medications the client recently received. C. Administer the antihypertensive medication as prescribed. D. Consult with the PN about the client’s condition at 0800.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: Obtaining another blood pressure measurement is critical, as lethargy, pallor, and diaphoresis suggest hypotension or shock, despite the earlier 140/90 reading. This guides safe administration of antihypertensives, preventing harm, per cardiovascular assessment and medication safety protocols in nursing practice.

Choice B reason: Determining recent medications is important but secondary to assessing current blood pressure, as symptoms suggest acute instability. Blood pressure confirms hypotension risk before reviewing drugs, ensuring timely intervention, per cardiovascular assessment and patient safety standards in nursing care.

Choice C reason: Administering antihypertensives without reassessing blood pressure is unsafe, as lethargy, pallor, and diaphoresis indicate possible hypotension. Confirming blood pressure prevents exacerbating instability, per medication safety and cardiovascular monitoring protocols in nursing practice for clients with hypertension.

Choice D reason: Consulting the PN about the 0800 condition delays immediate assessment of current symptoms. Blood pressure measurement addresses acute lethargy, pallor, and diaphoresis, guiding intervention. Consultation is secondary, per prioritization and cardiovascular assessment standards in nursing care.

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After a client voids, 150 mL of residual urine is measured. Which nursing problem should be included in this client’s plan of care?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Which client’s laboratory value requires immediate intervention by a nurse? Reference Range: Hemoglobin (Hgb) [14 to 18 g/dL (8.7 to 11.2 mmol/L)]; Fasting Blood Glucose [70 to 110 mg/dL (3.9 to 6.1 mmol/L)]; Neutrophils (ANC) [55 to 70%: 2,500 to 8,000/mm3 (2.5 to 5.8 x109/L)]

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

At 0800, the practical nurse (PN) reports to the registered nurse (RN) that a client’s blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg. When the RN arrives to administer the 0900 antihypertensive medication, the client is oriented but lethargic, pale, and diaphoretic. Which action should the RN implement first?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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