An adult client who had bariatric surgery two months ago has developed a postoperative stricture. For the past week, the client has experienced nausea, vomiting, and anorexia, and is admitted to the hospital for fluid resuscitation. At this time the client denies feeling any pain. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Keep the client NPO.

Administer daily vitamin supplements.

Provide protein-enriched shakes.

Encourage small frequent meals.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A reason: Keeping the client NPO (nothing by mouth) is essential to prevent further irritation of the gastrointestinal tract and to allow the postoperative stricture to heal. When the client is experiencing significant symptoms like nausea and vomiting, keeping them NPO can help manage these symptoms and prevent complications such as aspiration or worsening of the stricture.

Choice B reason: Administering daily vitamin supplements may be necessary for long-term nutritional management, especially after bariatric surgery. However, in the immediate setting of nausea, vomiting, and a postoperative stricture, this is not the priority intervention.

Choice C reason: Providing protein-enriched shakes may be beneficial for maintaining nutrition in the long term, but it is not appropriate when the client is experiencing nausea, vomiting, and anorexia. Oral intake should be limited until the symptoms subside and the stricture is addressed.

Choice D reason: Encouraging small frequent meals may be beneficial for managing long-term nutritional needs after bariatric surgery, but it is not appropriate during an acute episode of nausea, vomiting, and anorexia. The client should be kept NPO to prevent further complications and allow for proper healing.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: Administering insulin per sliding scale is typically based on blood glucose levels, not just the client's report of hunger. Since the client has already received insulin, providing more insulin without knowing the current blood glucose level could cause hypoglycaemia.

Choice B reason: Starting hourly blood glucose monitoring might be necessary in certain situations, but the immediate need is to address the client's hunger, which could be a sign of impending hypoglycaemia. Addressing the hunger first is more urgent.

Choice C reason: Initiating an IV bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride is not indicated in this scenario. This intervention is typically used for dehydration or other fluid imbalances, not for managing hunger or blood glucose levels directly.

Choice D reason: Providing a snack of cheese and crackers is the most appropriate action. The client's report of hunger after receiving insulin and eating only half of breakfast suggests they might be at risk for hypoglycaemia. A snack will help stabilize their blood glucose levels and prevent hypoglycaemia.

A. Respiratory acidosis. B. Metabolic acidosis. C. Metabolic alkalosis. D. Respiratory alkalosis.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Respiratory acidosis is characterized by a low pH and an elevated PaCO2 due to hypoventilation, which results in CO2 retention. The ABG results in this case show a normal PaCO2, making this option incorrect.

Choice B reason: Metabolic acidosis is characterized by a low pH and a low HCO3 due to an accumulation of acids or loss of bicarbonate. The ABG results show a high pH and a high HCO3, which are opposite to the findings of metabolic acidosis.

Choice C reason: Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by a high pH and an elevated HCO3. This condition can result from excessive loss of stomach acid due to vomiting or the use of diuretics. The ABG results show a pH of 7.50 and HCO3 of 33 me/L, both indicative of metabolic alkalosis.

Choice D reason: Respiratory alkalosis is characterized by a high pH and a low PaCO2 due to hyperventilation, which leads to CO2 loss. The ABG results show a normal PaCO2, ruling out respiratory alkalosis as the correct diagnosis.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse administers regular insulin SUBQ at 0700 to a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus (DM), after which the client eats one-half of the breakfast provided. At 1000, the client reports being hungry. Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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