An adult who has recurrent episodes of depression tells the nurse that the prescribed antidepressant needs to be discontinued because the client is feeling better after taking the medication for the past couple of weeks and does not like the side effects. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
Tell the client to discuss the medication side effects with the healthcare provider.
Tell the client that the medication's side effects will most likely dissipate over time.
Inform the client that gradual tapering must be used to discontinue the medication.
Remind the client that feeling better is the therapeutic effect of the medication.
None
None
The Correct Answer is A
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A. Discuss with provider → Correct. The nurse supports client autonomy and ensures safe management. The provider can adjust the dose, switch medications, or address side effects appropriately.
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B. Side effects dissipate → Incorrect. Some antidepressant side effects improve, but others persist. This statement minimizes the client’s concerns and is not therapeutic.
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C. Gradual tapering → Incorrect. While tapering is necessary, the nurse should not instruct discontinuation independently. This is the provider’s role.
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D. Feeling better is therapeutic effect → Incorrect. Although true, this response dismisses the client’s concern about side effects and does not address the request to discontinue.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The clinical scenario involves postoperative management of a surgical site in a patient colonized with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus. Successful intervention requires applying principles of wound hygiene, bacterial proliferation kinetics, and aseptic technique to mitigate localized moisture which fosters rapid staphylococcal replication and subsequent infection.
Choice A rationale: Elevated white blood cell counts, typically exceeding 11,000 mm3, indicate a systemic inflammatory response or active infection. While monitoring hematologic data is essential for detection, it is a reactive measure rather than a proactive intervention to prevent localized MRSA recurrence.
Choice B rationale: Contact precautions prevent the horizontal transmission of resistant pathogens between the patient and others. While vital for institutional infection control and public health safety, these measures do not directly address the localized physiological environment of the patient's own surgical incision.
Choice C rationale: Saturated dressings create a warm, moist environment that facilitates capillary action, pulling contaminants into the wound. Maintaining a dry, sterile environment inhibits the colonization of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus, as moisture promotes the rapid exponential growth of these resistant gram-positive cocci.
Choice D rationale: Face masks primarily provide protection against respiratory droplet transmission. While beneficial for preventing the introduction of oropharyngeal flora into a sterile field, they are less critical than moisture control for preventing MRSA recurrence, which is primarily spread through direct or indirect contact.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D: Begin chest compressions at 100/minute.
Choice A rationale:
Observing for swelling at the fracture site is not immediately relevant in this emergency situation. The priority is to address the lack of pulse and respiration.
Choice B rationale:
Analyzing the cardiac rhythm in another lead is unnecessary when the patient has no pulse and is not breathing. Immediate life-saving measures are required.
Choice C rationale:
Obtaining a 12-lead electrocardiogram is not the priority in this scenario. The patient needs immediate resuscitation efforts.
Choice D rationale:
Beginning chest compressions at 100/minute is the correct intervention. The absence of a carotid pulse and spontaneous respirations indicates cardiac arrest, and chest compressions are essential to maintain circulation and oxygenation until further help arrives.
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