An adult who has recurrent episodes of depression tells the nurse that the prescribed antidepressant needs to be discontinued because the client is feeling better after taking the medication for the past couple of weeks and does not like the side effects. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
Tell the client to discuss the medication side effects with the healthcare provider.
Tell the client that the medication's side effects will most likely dissipate over time.
Inform the client that gradual tapering must be used to discontinue the medication.
Remind the client that feeling better is the therapeutic effect of the medication.
None
None
The Correct Answer is A
-
A. Discuss with provider → Correct. The nurse supports client autonomy and ensures safe management. The provider can adjust the dose, switch medications, or address side effects appropriately.
-
B. Side effects dissipate → Incorrect. Some antidepressant side effects improve, but others persist. This statement minimizes the client’s concerns and is not therapeutic.
-
C. Gradual tapering → Incorrect. While tapering is necessary, the nurse should not instruct discontinuation independently. This is the provider’s role.
-
D. Feeling better is therapeutic effect → Incorrect. Although true, this response dismisses the client’s concern about side effects and does not address the request to discontinue.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Incorrect- Observing for swelling at the fracture site is important for assessing the client's musculoskeletal condition, but it is not the priority intervention in this situation. The absence of spontaneous respirations and palpable carotid pulse indicates cardiac arrest, and immediate intervention is needed.
B) Incorrect- Analyzing the cardiac rhythm in another lead is not the first priority when the client is in cardiac arrest. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) should be initiated immediately to restore circulation.
C) Incorrect- Obtaining a 12-lead electrocardiogram is not the initial intervention in a client in cardiac arrest. CPR and defibrillation (if indicated) are the immediate actions to provide circulation and oxygenation to the vital organs.
D) Correct- The absence of spontaneous respirations and palpable carotid pulse indicates cardiac arrest. In this situation, immediate initiation of cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is critical to provide circulation and oxygenation to the vital organs. Chest compressions are the initial step to address cardiac arrest and ensure blood flow to the body.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The presence of purulent drainage at the wound indicates a potential infection, and monitoring the client's WBC count is an important laboratory value to assess for signs of infection. An elevated WBC count, specifically an increase in the neutrophil count (neutrophilia), can indicate an active infection and provide important information for the healthcare provider when evaluating the wound.
While hematocrit, platelet count, and creatinine level are essential laboratory values to assess the client's overall condition, they may not provide specific information regarding the presence of infection or purulent drainage at the wound site.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today