An older client recently transferred to a rehabilitation facility after aortic valve replacement surgery is experiencing anxiety and difficulty adjusting to the transition. The healthcare provider prescribes an antidepressant and a mild sedative for sleep. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the client's plan of care?
Obtain a blood pressure reading before the client gets out of bed.
Monitor and record the client's urinary output every day.
Provide the client with teaching regarding a cardiac diet.
Assess the client's vital signs every 4 hours when awake.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Obtain a blood pressure reading before the client gets out of bed. This is the most important intervention, as it can prevent or detect orthostatic hypotension, which is a drop in blood pressure when changing position from lying to standing. Orthostatic hypotension can cause dizziness, fainting, or falls, and it can be caused by medications, dehydration, or cardiac problems.
Choice B reason: Monitor and record the client's urinary output every day. This is not the most important intervention, as it does not address the client's anxiety or adjustment issues. The urinary output should be monitored for signs of fluid balance, kidney function, or infection, but it is not a priority for this client.
Choice C reason: Provide the client with teaching regarding a cardiac diet. This is not the most important intervention, as it does not address the client's anxiety or adjustment issues. The cardiac diet should be taught to promote heart health, lower cholesterol, and reduce sodium intake, but it is not a priority for this client.
Choice D reason: Assess the client's vital signs every 4 hours when awake. This is not the most important intervention, as it does not address the client's anxiety or adjustment issues. The vital signs should be assessed for signs of infection, pain, or hemodynamic instability, but they are not a priority for this client.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: A 16-year-old client diagnosed with major depression who refuses to participate in group does not require the nurse's immediate attention. Depression is a mood disorder that causes persistent feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and loss of interest. Refusing to participate in group may indicate low motivation, social withdrawal, or poor self-esteem, which are common symptoms of depression. The nurse should respect the client's preference and offer alternative activities or individual therapy.
Choice B reason:This client requires immediate intervention because pacing can be a sign of agitation, restlessness, or escalating mania. Clients with bipolar disorder in a manic phase may exhibit increased energy, impulsivity, irritability, and even aggression. If not addressed promptly, this behavior could escalate to disruptive outbursts, impulsive actions, or even violence toward themselves or others. The nurse should intervene by using calm communication, redirection, and possibly medication if prescribed to help de-escalate the situation and ensure safety.
Choice Creason:This scenario involves peer conflict, which is important to address, but it does not necessarily indicate an immediate risk of harm. Clients with antisocial behavior often engage in conflict due to manipulative or confrontational tendencies, but being yelled at does not mean they are in immediate danger. The nurse should monitor the situation and intervene to prevent escalation, but other safety concerns take priority.
Choice D reason: A 14-year-old client with anorexia nervosa who is refusing to eat the evening snack does not require the nurse's immediate attention. Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder that causes extreme restriction of food intake and fear of weight gain. Refusing to eat the evening snack may indicate distorted body image, dietary rules, or anxiety, which are common factors of anorexia nervosa. The nurse should encourage the client to eat and provide support and education.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is the correct answer because a distended bladder can cause uterine displacement and interfere with uterine contraction, leading to increased bleeding and risk of infection. The nurse should check for bladder fullness and encourage the client to void or catheterize if necessary.
Choice B reason: Reviewing the hemoglobin to determine hemorrhage is an important action, but not the first one. The nurse should first identify and correct the cause of bleeding, such as bladder distension or uterine atony, before checking for blood loss and anemia.
Choice C reason: Massaging the uterus to decrease atony is not indicated in this case, because the uterus is already firm. Massaging a firm uterus can cause overstimulation and pain.
Choice D reason: Increasing intravenous infusion is not the first action, because it may worsen bleeding by increasing blood pressure and diluting clotting factors. The nurse should first assess and manage bleeding before administering fluids or blood products as prescribed.
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