For a 39-year-old woman with a recent diagnosis of psoriatic arthritis who is treatment-naive with mild disease, which of the following would be considered an appropriate first-line therapy?
Intra-articular glucocorticoids
NSAIDs
Opioids
Pregabalin (Lyrica)
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Intra-articular glucocorticoids may be used for flare management in specific joints but are not first-line systemic therapy for mild psoriatic arthritis.
Choice B reason: NSAIDs are first-line therapy for mild psoriatic arthritis, providing anti-inflammatory and analgesic effects without the risks associated with immunosuppressants.
Choice C reason: Opioids are not recommended for arthritis management due to risk of dependence and do not address inflammation.
Choice D reason: Pregabalin is indicated for neuropathic pain, not inflammatory arthritis, and is not appropriate for first-line treatment of psoriatic arthritis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Gabapentin is used for neuropathic pain but is generally not first-line for mild to moderate carpal tunnel syndrome, especially during pregnancy.
Choice B reason: Anti-inflammatory medications may be limited during pregnancy due to safety concerns and are not the most effective treatment for compressive neuropathy in the wrist.
Choice C reason: Corticosteroids can provide relief but systemic steroids are generally avoided in pregnancy unless necessary; localized corticosteroid injections may be used but are second-line.
Choice D reason: This choice is correct because wrist splinting, particularly at night, is the first-line conservative treatment for carpal tunnel syndrome, especially in pregnant patients. It helps maintain the wrist in a neutral position, reducing pressure on the median nerve and alleviating symptoms.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Physical therapy is commonly used after elbow dislocation to restore range of motion and prevent stiffness, making it a standard component of care.
Choice B reason: Reduction, or realignment of the dislocated joint, is the primary initial treatment and is expected in managing elbow dislocations.
Choice C reason: Splinting or immobilization following reduction is standard to maintain stability while soft tissues heal, and it is a routine part of management.
Choice D reason: Surgical intervention is typically not required for uncomplicated elbow dislocations in children, as most can be managed with closed reduction and conservative care. Surgery is reserved for complex fractures or persistent instability.
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