HP is a 24 y/o male that presents to your clinic with 2 to 3 lesions of mild impetigo. What is the most effective treatment for HP?
Miconazole (Lotrimin) cream
Muprirocin (Bactroban) cream
Amoxicillin Clavalunate (Augmentin)
Cephalexin (Keflex)
The Correct Answer is B
Impetigo is a highly contagious superficial bacterial skin infection commonly caused by Staphylococcus aureus and sometimes Streptococcus pyogenes. It typically presents as honey-colored crusted lesions and is most often managed with topical or systemic antibiotics depending on severity and extent. Localized, mild cases are best treated with topical agents to limit systemic exposure and effectively eradicate the infection. Early treatment also helps prevent spread to others and further skin involvement.
Rationale:
A. Miconazole (Lotrimin) is an antifungal agent used to treat fungal infections such as tinea corporis or candidiasis. Since impetigo is a bacterial infection, miconazole has no activity against Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. Using an antifungal would not resolve the infection and could allow progression or spread.
B. Mupirocin (Bactroban) is the first-line treatment for mild, localized impetigo. It works by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis, effectively targeting common causative organisms such as Staphylococcus aureus. For limited lesions, topical therapy is preferred because it is highly effective, reduces systemic side effects, and directly treats the infected skin area.
C. Amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin) is an oral antibiotic reserved for more extensive, severe, or systemic infections. While it has activity against common impetigo pathogens, it is not necessary for mild localized lesions. Oral therapy increases systemic exposure and is typically avoided when topical treatment is sufficient.
D. Cephalexin (Keflex) is effective against many gram-positive organisms and may be used for more widespread impetigo. However, for 2–3 localized lesions, systemic therapy is not indicated as first-line management. Topical treatment is equally effective in mild cases and minimizes unnecessary antibiotic exposure.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is used to manage menopausal symptoms such as hot flashes, vaginal dryness, and sleep disturbances by replacing declining estrogen levels. In women with an intact uterus, estrogen therapy must be carefully balanced with progestin to protect the endometrial lining. Unopposed estrogen stimulates endometrial proliferation, which increases the risk of abnormal hyperplasia and malignancy. Understanding this balance is essential for safe long-term hormone therapy.
Rationale:
A. Reduced risk for colon cancer is not the primary reason for adding progestin to hormone therapy. While some studies suggest combined hormone therapy may have minor effects on colorectal cancer risk, this is not the clinical rationale for dual therapy. The key concern in prescribing HRT is endometrial safety, not cancer prevention in the colon.
B. Combined hormone therapy does not reduce the risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE). In fact, both estrogen-only and combined therapies can increase thrombotic risk depending on route and patient factors. The addition of progestin is specifically for endometrial protection, not for reducing clotting risk.
C. Unopposed estrogen significantly increases the risk of endometrial hyperplasia and endometrial cancer in women with an intact uterus. Therefore, a progestin must be added to counteract estrogen’s proliferative effect on the endometrial lining. This protective mechanism is the primary reason for prescribing combination therapy in hormone replacement regimens.
D. While combination therapy may help relieve menopausal vasomotor symptoms such as hot flashes, this is not the reason progestin is required. Hormone replacement therapy is primarily structured to balance estrogen’s effects on the endometrium rather than to enhance symptom relief. Symptom control is a benefit, but not the safety indication for adding progestin.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Plaque psoriasis is a chronic inflammatory skin disorder characterized by well-demarcated erythematous plaques with silvery scaling, resulting from rapid keratinocyte turnover and immune-mediated inflammation. Initial treatment is typically based on disease severity, with mild to moderate cases managed using topical therapies that reduce inflammation and control plaque formation. Corticosteroids are the mainstay of first-line therapy due to their strong anti-inflammatory effects and rapid symptom control when used appropriately.
Rationale:
A. Anthralin (Dritho-Creme) is effective for psoriasis by slowing keratinocyte proliferation, but it is not commonly used as initial therapy due to its irritant properties, staining of skin and clothing, and need for careful application. It is generally reserved for more resistant plaques or as an adjunct therapy rather than first-line treatment.
B. Pimecrolimus (Elidel) is primarily indicated for atopic dermatitis, especially in sensitive areas such as the face or intertriginous regions. It is not considered a first-line treatment for plaque psoriasis because it has limited efficacy on thick, scaly plaques found in typical psoriatic lesions.
C. Burow’s solution (aluminum acetate) wet soaks are used for soothing inflamed or weeping skin conditions, such as acute dermatitis or minor skin infections. While they may provide symptomatic relief, they do not address the underlying immune-mediated inflammation of plaque psoriasis and are not effective as primary treatment.
D. Triamcinolone 0.1% (Kenalog) is an appropriate initial treatment for plaque psoriasis because it effectively reduces inflammation, erythema, and scaling. Intermittent “pulse” therapy helps minimize side effects such as skin atrophy while maintaining disease control. Topical corticosteroids are considered first-line therapy for localized mild to moderate plaque psoriasis due to their efficacy and rapid symptom relief.
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