LG is a 28 year old female who has been on a combination oral contraception, ethinyl estradiol (EE) 30mcg and levonorgestrel, a second generation progesterone, for 6 months. She is experiencing some weight gain and acne. She is not experiencing any breakthrough bleeding. Based on the safety and adverse event profile, which would be the BEST option to change LG's COC to? Select one:
No changes. Androgen effects will wear off over time.
Change to a lower EE dose of 20mcg and levonorgestrel
Change to norethindrone 35mcg, a progesterone only contraceptive
Change to EE 30mcg and desogestrel, a third generation progesterone
The Correct Answer is D
Combined oral contraceptives (COCs) contain estrogen and progestin components that influence both contraceptive efficacy and side effect profiles. Androgenic side effects such as acne and weight changes are commonly associated with second-generation progestins due to their higher androgen receptor activity. Selecting an alternative formulation often involves switching to a progestin with lower androgenic activity while maintaining adequate cycle control and contraceptive effectiveness. The goal is to improve tolerability without compromising safety or efficacy.
Rationale:
A. Androgenic side effects from Levonorgestrel do not reliably resolve over time in many patients, especially when related to intrinsic androgen receptor activity. Waiting without changing therapy may prolong bothersome acne and weight concerns, reducing adherence and satisfaction. Clinical improvement is more likely achieved through changing the progestin component rather than expecting spontaneous resolution.
B. Lowering the ethinyl estradiol (EE) dose while continuing Levonorgestrel may reduce estrogen-related side effects but does not significantly address androgenic effects such as acne. In some cases, reducing estrogen may worsen breakthrough bleeding without improving acne. Therefore, this option does not effectively target the patient’s main concern.
C. A progesterone-only contraceptive such as Norethindrone is not appropriate in this scenario because it eliminates estrogen, which plays a role in cycle regulation and acne control. Progestin-only pills can also cause irregular bleeding and may not improve androgenic side effects. This option does not optimize both safety and symptom management for the patient’s presentation.
D. Switching to a formulation containing Desogestrel while maintaining EE 30mcg is the best option because third-generation progestins have lower androgenic activity compared to levonorgestrel. This change is more likely to improve acne and weight-related concerns while maintaining good cycle control and contraceptive efficacy. It balances symptom management with continued reliable contraception.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Head lice infestation, or pediculosis capitis, is commonly treated with topical pediculicides such as Permethrin (Nix). Treatment aims to eliminate live lice and prevent reinfestation from newly hatched eggs. Although permethrin is highly effective against active lice, some eggs may survive the initial treatment. A second application is often recommended after several days to target lice that hatch after the first dose.
Rationale:
A. Redosing is not done to prevent scabies infection because head lice and scabies are caused by different parasites and require different treatment approaches. Permethrin (Nix) used for head lice is intended specifically for pediculosis capitis, not for preventing scabies transmission. The repeat dose is related to lice management, not mite infestation.
B. Permethrin is pediculicidal, meaning it effectively kills live lice by disrupting sodium channel function in the parasite’s nerve cell membranes, leading to paralysis and death. This is why it is considered a first-line therapy for head lice. The problem is not failure to kill live lice, but rather incomplete destruction of the eggs.
C. Over-the-counter permethrin is considered effective and does not require redosing because it is too weak. The need for retreatment is based on the life cycle of lice rather than medication strength. Even with proper use, surviving nits may hatch later, making a second treatment necessary to fully interrupt reinfestation.
D. Permethrin is not fully ovicidal, meaning it may not destroy all lice eggs (nits) during the first treatment. Eggs that survive can hatch several days later and lead to reinfestation if not addressed. Retreatment around day 7 to 9 targets these newly hatched lice before they mature and lay additional eggs, ensuring complete eradication.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Acute otitis media (AOM) is a common pediatric infection characterized by inflammation and infection of the middle ear, often following an upper respiratory tract infection. Management depends on the child’s age, severity of symptoms, degree of fever, and reliability of follow-up. In selected low-risk cases, “watchful waiting” is recommended to avoid unnecessary antibiotic use and reduce resistance. This approach is appropriate when symptoms are mild and the caregiver can ensure close follow-up.
Rationale:
A. A temperature less than 39°C (102.2°F) supports watchful waiting because higher fevers are associated with more severe bacterial infection requiring antibiotics. Acute otitis media guidelines recommend observation in children with mild symptoms and lower-grade fever, as many cases are self-limiting. The absence of high fever suggests a less severe inflammatory process.
B. Being older than 24 months is an important criterion for observation in Acute otitis media because older children generally have more mature immune responses and lower risk of complications. Watchful waiting is considered safe in this age group when symptoms are mild and follow-up is reliable. Younger children have higher risk for progression and may require earlier antibiotic therapy.
C. The absence of severe otalgia supports a watchful waiting approach because severe ear pain often indicates more significant infection requiring antibiotic therapy. In mild cases like this, pain is usually manageable with analgesics alone. Mild bulging of the tympanic membrane without significant distress suggests a non-severe presentation suitable for observation.
D. All options are correct because each criterion, low-grade fever, age greater than 24 months, and absence of severe otalgia, supports the decision to use watchful waiting in this case of Acute otitis media. Combined with a reliable caregiver for follow-up, these factors align with evidence-based guidelines that allow safe observation without immediate antibiotic therapy.
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