In the non-acute, outpatient setting, patients screened for general anxiety disorders benefit from behavioral therapy and initiating an agent from which class of drugs?
Barbiturates
Benzodiazepines
Atypical Antipsychotics
Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors
The Correct Answer is D
Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is a chronic mental health condition characterized by excessive, persistent worry and associated physical symptoms such as restlessness, muscle tension, and sleep disturbance. Outpatient management typically involves a combination of psychotherapy, especially cognitive behavioral therapy, and pharmacologic treatment. First-line medications are chosen for long-term safety, effectiveness, and low risk of dependence. Treatment aims to reduce anxiety symptoms while improving daily functioning over time.
Rationale:
A. Barbiturates are not used for generalized anxiety disorder due to their high risk of sedation, respiratory depression, tolerance, and dependence. They have a narrow therapeutic index and are associated with significant overdose risk. For these reasons, they are no longer recommended for outpatient management of anxiety disorders.
B. Benzodiazepines may provide short-term relief of anxiety symptoms, but they are not first-line for long-term outpatient treatment due to risks of dependence, tolerance, and withdrawal. While they may be used temporarily during acute exacerbations, they do not address the underlying chronic nature of GAD and are not preferred for routine maintenance therapy.
C. Atypical antipsychotics are not first-line treatments for generalized anxiety disorder. Although some may be used as adjuncts in treatment-resistant cases, they carry risks such as weight gain, metabolic syndrome, and extrapyramidal symptoms. Their risk profile outweighs their benefit in routine outpatient anxiety management.
D. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are first-line pharmacologic agents for generalized anxiety disorder because they improve serotonin availability, reducing chronic anxiety symptoms over time. SSRIs are effective for long-term management, have a favorable safety profile, and are not associated with dependence. When combined with behavioral therapy, they provide the most evidence-based outpatient treatment approach for GAD.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Uncomplicated urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in healthy adolescent and adult females and are most often caused by Escherichia coli. First-line empiric treatment is selected based on likely organisms, local resistance patterns, patient allergies, and severity of illness. In an afebrile patient without recent antibiotic exposure or complicating factors, short-course oral therapy is usually sufficient. The goal is to effectively eradicate the infection while minimizing resistance and unnecessary broad-spectrum antibiotic use.
Rationale:
A. Nitrofurantoin (Macrobid) is a preferred first-line treatment for uncomplicated lower urinary tract infections. It concentrates well in the urine and is highly effective against common pathogens such as E. coli. It is especially appropriate in healthy, afebrile patients without signs of pyelonephritis because it provides targeted therapy with a lower risk of widespread antibiotic resistance.
B. Amoxicillin/Clavulanate (Augmentin) can be used for UTIs in some cases, but it is not usually the preferred first-line empiric option for uncomplicated cystitis. Resistance among common urinary pathogens is higher compared with nitrofurantoin, and broader-spectrum coverage may be unnecessary. It is more often reserved for cases where first-line agents are contraindicated or culture results indicate susceptibility.
C. Azithromycin (Zithromax) is not appropriate for routine treatment of uncomplicated UTIs because it has poor activity against the most common urinary pathogens, particularly E. coli. It is more commonly used for respiratory infections and certain sexually transmitted infections. Its pharmacologic profile does not make it effective as standard empiric therapy for cystitis.
D. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) is effective against urinary pathogens but is generally not recommended as a first-line treatment for uncomplicated UTIs in young healthy patients. Fluoroquinolones are reserved for more complicated infections due to concerns about resistance and serious adverse effects such as tendon injury and central nervous system complications. Safer narrow-spectrum options are preferred first.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Erectile dysfunction is commonly treated with phosphodiesterase-5 (PDE-5) inhibitors such as Sildenafil (Viagra), which work by enhancing nitric oxide–mediated vasodilation in the corpus cavernosum to improve penile blood flow. Because these medications also cause systemic vasodilation, they can significantly lower blood pressure. Careful screening for contraindications is essential before prescribing to prevent life-threatening hypotension. Patient safety depends on identifying high-risk drug interactions and cardiovascular risks.
Rationale:
A. Androgen use is not a contraindication to Sildenafil (Viagra) therapy. Although testosterone levels may influence libido and erectile function, concurrent androgen therapy does not create a dangerous pharmacologic interaction with PDE-5 inhibitors. Screening for androgen use may be clinically relevant in evaluating erectile dysfunction causes, but it is not a safety exclusion criterion.
B. Prostate cancer is not an absolute contraindication to sildenafil use. Patients with prostate cancer may experience erectile dysfunction due to surgery, radiation, or hormonal therapy, and PDE-5 inhibitors are often used to manage this condition. However, sildenafil does not treat cancer itself and should be used cautiously based on overall health status, not as a strict contraindication.
C. Renal dysfunction may require dose adjustment of Sildenafil (Viagra) due to altered drug clearance, but it is not an absolute contraindication. Patients with mild to moderate renal impairment can still safely use the medication with appropriate dosing modifications. Screening is important, but the primary life-threatening concern is not renal impairment alone.
D. Nitrate use is an absolute contraindication because combining nitrates with Sildenafil (Viagra) can cause severe and potentially fatal hypotension. Both drugs increase nitric oxide-mediated vasodilation, leading to a synergistic drop in blood pressure. This interaction can result in syncope, myocardial ischemia, or cardiovascular collapse, making it the most critical screening factor before prescribing sildenafil.
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