A nurse is performing Leopold maneuvers on a client who is in labor and determines the fetus is in an RSA position. Which of the following fetal presentations should the nurse document in the client's medical record?
Shoulder
Breech
Vertex
Mentum
The Correct Answer is B
A. Shoulder presentation is not typically described using the terms RSA. Shoulder presentation would be noted differently, and it is uncommon.
B. Breech presentation involves the presentation of the fetus with the buttocks or feet first. RSA indicates the specific position of the sacrum in relation to the mother's right side.
C. Vertex presentation refers to the head-first position, and it is not described using the terms RSA.
D. Mentum presentation is not a standard term used to describe fetal presentation. Mentum typically refers to the chin, and fetal presentations are commonly described in terms of the presenting part (e.g., vertex, breech).
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is C.
A. Acrocyanosis of the extremities: Acrocyanosis, or blueness of the extremities, is a common finding in newborns and is usually considered normal. It often resolves on its own and doesn't typically require intervention.
B. Murmur at the left sternal border: It's not uncommon for newborns to have innocent murmurs, and many resolve on their own as the infant grows. A murmur at the left sternal border alone may not necessarily indicate a problem, but it should be assessed by a healthcare provider.
C. Substernal chest retractions while sleeping: Chest retractions can be a sign of respiratory distress, and intervention is needed to assess and address the cause. Substernal retractions suggest increased work of breathing and may indicate a respiratory issue that requires attention.
D. Positive Babinski reflex: The Babinski reflex is a normal neurological response in infants. It involves the toes fanning out when the sole of the foot is stroked. A positive Babinski reflex is expected in a 12-hour-old newborn and does not require intervention.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Drinking the glucose solution 2 hours prior to the test is not standard for a 1-hour GTT. Instead, the glucose solution is usually consumed within a short timeframe, such as 5 minutes, and the blood is drawn 1 hour afterward.
Choice B Reason:
Limiting carbohydrate intake for 3 days prior to the test is not a requirement for a 1-hour GTT. However, it may be advised for a longer fasting period or a different type of glucose tolerance test.
Choice C Reason:
C. “A blood glucose of 130 to 140 is considered a positive screening result.”
In the 1-hour glucose tolerance test during pregnancy, a blood glucose level of135 mg/dL or higheris considered a positive screening result. If this threshold is met, further testing (such as the 3-hour glucose tolerance test) is recommended to confirm or rule out gestational diabetes.
.
Choice D Reason:
Fasting for 12 hours prior to the test is inappropriate. For a 1-hour GTT, the client is not typically required to fast.
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