Recommended treatment for tinea cruris (jock itch) or Tinea corporis (ringworm) includes which of the following agents: Select one:
Docosanol (Abreva)
Miconazole (Micatin) cream
itraconazole (Sporanox) oral
Ciclopirox (Penlac)
The Correct Answer is B
Tinea cruris (jock itch) and tinea corporis (ringworm) are superficial fungal infections caused by dermatophytes that invade keratinized tissues such as the skin. These infections commonly present with pruritic, erythematous, ring-shaped lesions with central clearing and raised borders. First-line treatment for uncomplicated cases is usually topical antifungal therapy applied directly to the affected area. Proper hygiene and keeping the skin dry are also important for preventing recurrence.
Rationale:
A. Docosanol (Abreva) is an antiviral medication used for the treatment of herpes labialis (cold sores) caused by the herpes simplex virus. It works by inhibiting viral fusion and entry into host cells. Since tinea infections are caused by fungi rather than viruses, docosanol has no therapeutic role in managing ringworm or jock itch.
B. Miconazole (Micatin) cream is an appropriate first-line treatment for tinea cruris and tinea corporis. It works by inhibiting fungal cell membrane synthesis, leading to fungal cell death and resolution of infection. Topical antifungals are preferred for localized, uncomplicated dermatophyte infections because they are effective and have minimal systemic adverse effects.
C. Itraconazole (Sporanox) oral may be used for severe, widespread, or refractory fungal infections, but it is not the usual first-line therapy for uncomplicated tinea cruris or corporis. Oral antifungals carry greater risks of systemic side effects, including hepatotoxicity and drug interactions. Topical treatment is generally preferred before considering systemic therapy.
D. Ciclopirox (Penlac) is primarily used for onychomycosis, which is a fungal infection of the nails. It is formulated as a nail lacquer rather than a skin cream and is not commonly used for superficial body or groin fungal infections. Its indication and formulation make it unsuitable for treating tinea cruris or tinea corporis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are widely used for the treatment of depression and anxiety disorders by increasing serotonin availability in the central nervous system. One important consideration when managing these medications is the risk of discontinuation syndrome, which can occur when an SSRI is stopped abruptly or tapered too quickly. Drugs with longer half-lives tend to have a lower risk of withdrawal symptoms due to gradual decline in serum levels. Understanding pharmacokinetics helps guide safe tapering strategies.
Rationale:
A. Sertraline (Zoloft) has an intermediate half-life and does not significantly prevent discontinuation syndrome when stopped abruptly. While it is generally well tolerated, patients may still experience withdrawal symptoms such as dizziness, irritability, or flu-like symptoms if not tapered appropriately. It is not the SSRI of choice for minimizing discontinuation effects.
B. Citalopram (Celexa) has a moderate half-life and may still be associated with discontinuation symptoms if stopped suddenly. Although it is commonly used for depression, its pharmacokinetic profile does not provide the extended self-tapering effect seen with longer-acting agents. Therefore, it is not ideal for preventing withdrawal syndrome.
C. Fluoxetine (Prozac) has a long half-life and active metabolite (norfluoxetine), which results in gradual drug elimination from the body. This pharmacologic property significantly reduces the risk of discontinuation syndrome when the medication is stopped or tapered. It essentially self-tapers, making it particularly useful in patients sensitive to SSRI withdrawal effects.
D. Paroxetine (Paxil) has a short half-life and is one of the SSRIs most strongly associated with discontinuation syndrome. Patients may experience significant withdrawal symptoms if it is stopped abruptly. Despite its effectiveness in treating depression and anxiety, it requires careful tapering and is not suitable for minimizing discontinuation effects.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Medroxyprogesterone (Depo-Provera) is a long-acting injectable contraceptive that suppresses ovulation by inhibiting the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis. It is highly effective and convenient because it requires administration only every three months. However, its prolonged use has been associated with significant effects on bone metabolism, especially in adolescents and young adults. This risk is highlighted in its boxed warning and requires patient counseling and monitoring.
Rationale:
A. Increased risk of strokes is more commonly associated with estrogen-containing contraceptives rather than progestin-only methods like Medroxyprogesterone (Depo-Provera). While any hormonal therapy may carry some vascular risk depending on patient factors, stroke risk is not the primary boxed warning for this medication.
B. Decreased bone mineral density is the black box warning associated with Medroxyprogesterone (Depo-Provera). Prolonged use suppresses estrogen levels, which can lead to reduced bone formation and increased bone resorption. This effect is particularly concerning in adolescents and young adults, and long-term use requires careful risk-benefit assessment and counseling on bone health.
C. Stevens-Johnson syndrome is not associated with Medroxyprogesterone (Depo-Provera). Severe cutaneous hypersensitivity reactions are not a known boxed warning for this medication. SJS is more commonly associated with certain anticonvulsants and antibiotics rather than hormonal contraceptives.
D. Significant hypertension is not a recognized black box warning or primary adverse effect of Medroxyprogesterone (Depo-Provera). Unlike estrogen-containing contraceptives, progestin-only injections have a lower impact on blood pressure regulation. While monitoring is still important in hypertensive patients, it is not the primary boxed warning concern.
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