A female patient age 32, is being treated for a scabies infestation. Which of the following is true regarding treatment recommendations? Select one:
All family members require treatment, even if asymptomatic, to prevent recurrence
Treatment is best with oral therapies
Itching resolves and heals quickly
Lindane is the medication of choice in pregnancy
The Correct Answer is A
Scabies is a contagious skin infestation caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, which burrows into the epidermis and causes intense itching and a papular rash. Transmission commonly occurs through prolonged skin-to-skin contact, making household spread very common. Effective management requires both pharmacologic treatment and prevention of reinfestation. Treating close contacts and addressing environmental contamination are essential parts of care.
Rationale:
A. All family members and close household contacts should be treated simultaneously, even if they do not yet have symptoms. Symptoms may take several weeks to appear after initial infestation, but transmission can still occur during this asymptomatic period. Simultaneous treatment prevents reinfestation cycles and is a standard recommendation in scabies management to ensure complete eradication.
B. Treatment is not best with oral therapies because first-line management is usually with topical scabicides such as Permethrin 5% cream. Oral Ivermectin may be used in certain severe cases such as crusted scabies or outbreaks, but it is not the routine initial therapy for uncomplicated infestations. Topical treatment remains the preferred standard in most patients.
C. Itching does not resolve immediately after treatment and may persist for several weeks despite successful eradication of the mites. This continued itching occurs because of an ongoing hypersensitivity reaction to dead mites and their products. Patients should be taught that persistent itching does not necessarily mean treatment failure, which helps reduce unnecessary retreatment.
D. Lindane is not the medication of choice during pregnancy because of its potential neurotoxicity and risk of systemic absorption. It is generally avoided in pregnant patients, infants, and individuals with seizure disorders. Safer alternatives such as permethrin are preferred because they have a better safety profile and are more effective.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The STAR*D (Sequenced Treatment Alternatives to Relieve Depression) trial was a large, study evaluating stepwise treatment strategies for major depressive disorder when initial therapies fail or require adjustment. It helped establish evidence-based sequencing of antidepressant therapies and confirmed that selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are appropriate first-line agents due to their efficacy and tolerability profile. Treatment selection prioritizes safety, side effect burden, and patient adherence in long-term depression management.
Rationale:
A. Buspirone (Buspar) is primarily indicated for generalized anxiety disorder and is not considered a first-line antidepressant for major depressive disorder. While it can be used as an adjunct to antidepressants, it lacks strong antidepressant efficacy as monotherapy. Therefore, it is not appropriate as initial treatment for depression in the STAR*D framework.
B. Alprazolam (Xanax) is a benzodiazepine used for acute anxiety and panic symptoms, not for long-term management of depression. It does not treat the underlying pathophysiology of major depressive disorder and carries risks of dependence, tolerance, and sedation. It is not recommended as a first-line or standalone treatment for depression.
C. Amitriptyline (Elavil) is an older antidepressant effective for depression but associated with significant side effects such as anticholinergic effects, orthostatic hypotension, and cardiotoxicity in overdose. Due to its safety profile, it is not considered first-line therapy in modern treatment algorithms, including STAR*D, which favors safer SSRIs initially.
D. Escitalopram (Lexapro) is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor and is considered first-line therapy for major depressive disorder in the STAR*D trial and current clinical guidelines. It has strong efficacy, a favorable side effect profile, and good tolerability compared to older antidepressants. These characteristics make it an appropriate initial pharmacologic choice for depression treatment.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Typical antipsychotics such as Fluphenazine (Prolixin) are effective in treating positive symptoms of schizophrenia but are strongly associated with extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) due to dopamine blockade in the nigrostriatal pathway. EPS can include acute dystonia, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. Anticholinergic medications are often used as adjunct therapy to reduce these motor side effects. Understanding this pharmacologic balance is important in safe antipsychotic management.
Rationale:
A. Anticholinergic agents such as Benztropine (Cogentin) or diphenhydramine are used to manage extrapyramidal symptoms caused by dopamine blockade from typical antipsychotics like Fluphenazine (Prolixin). By reducing acetylcholine activity in the basal ganglia, these medications help restore neurotransmitter balance and relieve symptoms such as rigidity, tremors, and acute dystonic reactions. This is their primary and clinical purpose.
B. Anticholinergic medications do not potentiate or enhance the antipsychotic effects of Fluphenazine (Prolixin). Their role is supportive, aimed at reducing side effects rather than improving therapeutic efficacy. In fact, combining them is purely for symptom management of adverse effects, not for increasing dopamine blockade or antipsychotic potency.
C. Anticholinergic agents do not improve the negative symptoms of schizophrenia such as social withdrawal, flat affect, or anhedonia. These symptoms are related to dopamine deficiency in the mesocortical pathway and require different pharmacologic approaches. Medications like Benztropine (Cogentin) primarily target motor side effects, not core psychiatric symptomatology.
D. While anticholinergic agents can cause some sedation, their primary purpose is not to increase CNS depression when used with Fluphenazine (Prolixin). CNS depression may occur as a side effect, but it is not the therapeutic goal. Their intended use is to counteract cholinergic-dopaminergic imbalance in the basal ganglia rather than enhance sedative effects.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
