The birth weight of an infant delivered by a woman with gestational diabetes is 10.1 pounds (4,581 grams). The infant is jitery and has a heel stick glucose level of 40 mg/dL (2.2 mmol/L) 30 minutes after birth. Based on this information, which intervention should the practical nurse (PN) implement first?
Reference range:
Blood glucose neonate: [30 to 60 mg/dL or 1.7 to 3.3 mmol/L]
Offer nipple feedings of 10% dextrose.
Begin frequent feedings of breast milk or formula
Repeat the heel stick for glucose in one hour
Assess for signs of hypocalcemia
The Correct Answer is B
A. Offering 10% dextrose via nipple feeding is used for infants who are unable to feed orally or with severe hypoglycemia. This neonate is still within range hence dextrose is not incicated at this point.
B. The infant is jittery with a glucose of 40 mg/dL, which indicates mild symptomatic hypoglycemia. Initiating frequent feedings of breast milk or formula is the first action to stabilize glucose while supporting oral intake.
C. Repeating the heel stick is important for monitoring, but it does not treat the low glucose and is not the first action.
D. Assessing for hypocalcemia may be indicated later, but the priority is addressing hypoglycemia through feeding.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This statement indicates that the client has reached a level of acceptance of his prognosis, as he expresses a sense of peace, gratitude, and hope. He has found sources of strength and comfort from his faith and family, and he does not show signs of denial, anger, bargaining, or depression.
The other options are not correct because:
B . This statement indicates that the client is in the stage of rationalization, as he tries to justify or minimize his condition by stating a fact that does not address his feelings or needs.
C. This statement indicates that the client is in the stage of anger, as he shows resentment and hostility towards those who challenge his optimism or reality.
D. This statement indicates that the client is in the stage of blame, as he implies that his condition could have been prevented or treated if the doctor had diagnosed it earlier.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The client may be experiencing postoperative delirium, which is a transient state of confusion, disorientation, agitation, or hallucinations that can occur after surgery, especially in elderly clients. The PN should raise the side rails and notify the family to come and stay with the client, as this can provide safety, comfort, and reassurance for the client.
The other options are not correct because:
A. Administering a prescribed narcotic antagonist may not be appropriate or necessary, as the client's agitation may not be caused by analgesic accumulation, but by other factors such as hypoxia, infection, electrolyte imbalance, or sensory deprivation.
B. Notifying the healthcare provider and requesting a prescription for restraints may not be the best intervention, as restraints can increase the client's agitation, anxiety, or injury. Restraints should be used only as a last resort when other measures have failed or when there is an imminent risk of harm.
D. Instructing a UAP to keep the upper side rails up and check on the client every 15 minutes may not be sufficient or effective, as the client may still try to get out of bed or become more agitated by being left alone. The PN should involve the family or stay with the client until he or she is calm and oriented.
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