An adolescent who was diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus at the age of 9, is admitted to the hospital in diabetic ketoacidosis. Which occurrence is the most likely cause of the ketoacidosis?
Skipped eating lunch.
Incorrectly administered too much insulin.
Had a cold and ear infection for the past two days.
Ate an extra peanut butter sandwich before gym class.
None
None
The Correct Answer is C
A. Skipped eating lunch would more likely cause hypoglycemia rather than diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). When a person with type 1 diabetes skips a meal but still takes insulin, blood glucose levels drop, leading to hypoglycemia, not the elevated glucose and ketone production seen in DKA.
B. Incorrectly administered too much insulin would also result in hypoglycemia rather than DKA. Administering excessive insulin causes blood glucose levels to fall too low, which does not trigger the fat breakdown and ketone production that characterize DKA.
C. Had a cold and ear infection for the past two days is the most likely cause of diabetic ketoacidosis. Illness and infection cause the body to release stress hormones such as cortisol and adrenaline, which increase blood glucose levels and counteract insulin. In type 1 diabetes, insufficient insulin leads to hyperglycemia, fat breakdown for energy, and the production of ketones, resulting in DKA.
D. Ate an extra peanut butter sandwich before gym class would not cause DKA. Consuming extra food may raise blood glucose temporarily, but it would not lead to the severe insulin deficiency and ketone production seen in DKA, especially if the adolescent took insulin as prescribed.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A high blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level indicates impaired renal function, which can be caused by dehydration, infection, or nephrotoxic drugs. Chemotherapy can damage the kidneys and increase the risk of renal failure. The PN should report this finding to the charge nurse, as it may require fluid replacement, dose adjustment, or discontinuation of the chemotherapy.
The other options are not correct because:
- Periodic nausea and vomiting are common side effects of chemotherapy that can be managed with antiemetics, hydration, and dietary modifications. They are not as urgent as a high BUN level.
- Decreased deep tendon reflexes may indicate hypocalcemia, hypomagnesemia, or peripheral neuropathy, which can be caused by chemotherapy or other factors. They are not as urgent as a high BUN level.
- A platelet count of 135,000/mm3 or 135 x 10^9/L is slightly below the normal range, but not significantly low. Chemotherapy can cause thrombocytopenia, which increases the risk of bleeding. The PN should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, but this finding is not as urgent as a high BUN level.
Correct Answer is ["A","D","E"]
Explanation
A) Correct- Continuous monitoring of oxygen saturation ensures the client's oxygen levels remain within an acceptable range.
B) Incorrect - Discussing aggressive respiratory treatment options is not warranted based on the provided information. The current treatment plan includes appropriate interventions.
C) Incorrect - Obtaining a sputum culture is important for identifying infections, but it's not an immediate action in the context of the client's current symptoms.
D) Correct- Promoting comfort can help reduce anxiety and potentially improve breathing.
E) Correct- Educating the client about potential triggers supports better self-management.
F) Incorrect - Considering positive pressure ventilation is not indicated at this stage. The client's symptoms are being managed with other interventions.
G) Incorrect - Weaning supplemental oxygen is not mentioned in the patient data or nurses' notes as something that's currently necessary.
H) Incorrect - Preparing for deep tracheal suctioning is not warranted based on the patient data and the current treatment plan.
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