The client is brought to the emergency department with a reported overdose of morphine. Which drug does the nurse anticipate will be prescribed?
Butorphanol
Naloxone
Flumazenil
Pentazocine
The Correct Answer is B
A. Butorphanol
Butorphanol is a mixed opioid agonist-antagonist. It has both agonist and antagonist properties at opioid receptors. While it can be used for pain management, it is not commonly used for opioid overdose reversal.
B. Naloxone
Naloxone is an opioid receptor antagonist and is the drug of choice for reversing opioid overdose, including morphine overdose. It works by competitively binding to opioid receptors, blocking the effects of opioids.
C. Flumazenil
Flumazenil is a selective antagonist for benzodiazepines. It is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepine overdose but does not have an effect on opioid overdose.
D. Pentazocine
Pentazocine is a mixed opioid agonist-antagonist. Like butorphanol, it has both agonist and antagonist properties at opioid receptors. It is used for pain management but is not commonly used for opioid overdose reversal.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Call the health care provider immediately to change the medication to oral.
Changing the medication to oral may not address the immediate issue of the burning sensation and feeling of heat at the IV site. This option focuses on changing the route of administration rather than addressing the current discomfort.
B. Continue the infusion and reassure the patient.
Continuing the infusion without addressing the patient's discomfort could lead to potential complications, and it is important to prioritize patient comfort and safety. Reassurance alone may not be sufficient if there is an issue with the IV site.
C. Flush the line with 10 mL of normal saline and continue the infusion.
While flushing the line with normal saline is a good practice to ensure patency, it may not resolve the issue if there is ongoing irritation or infiltration at the site. Continuing the infusion without addressing the patient's complaint might lead to further discomfort.
D. Discontinue the IV and restart the IV infusion in a different site.
This is the best action. Discontinuing the IV allows the nurse to assess the current site for signs of infiltration or irritation. Restarting the IV in a different site addresses the immediate issue, ensuring that the medication is delivered safely and effectively.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Before breakfast or lunch
Methylphenidate (Ritalin), a stimulant medication commonly used to treat attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD), is usually administered before breakfast or lunch for maximum effectiveness. This schedule helps align the peak concentration of the medication with the times when increased focus and attention are often needed, such as during school hours.
B. With meals
While it can be administered with meals, the goal is often to have the medication take effect before meals to help with focus and attention during activities like school or work.
C. After dinner
Administering methylphenidate after dinner may interfere with the patient's ability to fall asleep, as the medication can cause insomnia. It is generally recommended to avoid administering it in the late afternoon or evening.
D. At bedtime
Administering methylphenidate at bedtime is not appropriate due to the potential for insomnia. The stimulant effect of the medication is not aligned with the patient's sleep-wake cycle.
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