The Glasgow Coma Scale is being used to monitor a client who experienced a traumatic brain injury. What primary assessment should the practical nurse (PN) evaluate?
Mental status
Cranial nerve status:
Level of consciousness.
Ability to communicate.
The Correct Answer is C
A. Mental status: Mental status assessment is broad and includes multiple components such as mood, orientation, and cognition. While important, it is not the primary focus of the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS).
B. Cranial nerve status: Cranial nerve assessment evaluates specific neurological function, but the GCS specifically measures overall neurological responsiveness rather than individual cranial nerves.
C. Level of consciousness: The Glasgow Coma Scale is designed to assess a client’s level of consciousness through eye, verbal, and motor responses. Monitoring changes in consciousness provides critical information about brain function and potential deterioration.
D. Ability to communicate: Communication is one component of the GCS (verbal response), but the scale also incorporates eye and motor responses. Level of consciousness encompasses overall neurological status, making it the primary assessment.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Gently pull the upper aspect of the ear lobe upwards and backwards: For children older than 3 years, this straightens the ear canal to allow proper delivery of the medication into the external auditory canal.
B. Gently pull the lower aspect of the ear lobe downwards and forward: This technique is appropriate for infants and children younger than 3 years, as their ear canal angles differently.
C. Hold the upper aspect of the ear lobe downwards and against the skull: This position would obstruct the ear canal rather than open it, preventing proper medication flow.
D. Instill one drop q5 minutes with the child in a Trendelenburg position: Trendelenburg positioning is unnecessary and unsafe for ear drop administration; the child should simply remain with the affected ear upward for several minutes.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Quinapril: Quinapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. A persistent dry cough is a well-known side effect due to accumulation of bradykinin in the respiratory tract. Clients should be informed that the cough may resolve after discontinuation or switching to another antihypertensive class.
B. Spironolactone: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic and does not commonly cause a dry cough. Its primary side effects include hyperkalemia, gynecomastia, and menstrual irregularities rather than respiratory symptoms.
C. Losartan: Losartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) and is less likely to cause a cough. It is often used as an alternative for clients who develop a cough with ACE inhibitors.
D. Clonidine: Clonidine is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used for hypertension. Common side effects include sedation, dry mouth, and hypotension, but it does not typically produce a persistent dry cough.
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