The nurse cares for the client with a history of pulmonary tuberculosis (TB). Two granulomas were present in the chest x-ray. Which explanation does the nurse understand best describes the primary immune response to tuberculosis infection?
Infected macrophages and lymphocytes surround the Mycobacterium tuberculosis bacteria and form a tuberculous granuloma.
Tumor necrosis factor is released by T lymphocytes and lyses the Mycobacterium tuberculosis bacteria in the alveoli.
Natural killer cells and neutrophils form a thick purulent debris, which becomes a caseous necrosis.
The inflammatory response of cytokines activates the complement system and causes permanent lung tissue damage.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Infected macrophages and lymphocytes surround the Mycobacterium tuberculosis bacteria and form a tuberculous granuloma is the best explanation for the primary immune response to tuberculosis infection. A granuloma is a collection of immune cells that wall off the bacteria and prevent their spread. It is a protective mechanism that limits the infection and preserves the lung function.
Choice B reason: Tumor necrosis factor is released by T lymphocytes and lyses the Mycobacterium tuberculosis bacteria in the alveoli is not a correct explanation for the primary immune response to tuberculosis infection. Tumor necrosis factor is a cytokine that activates macrophages and induces inflammation, but it does not directly kill the bacteria. It may also have harmful effects by causing tissue damage and weight loss.
Choice C reason: Natural killer cells and neutrophils form a thick purulent debris, which becomes a caseous necrosis is not a correct explanation for the primary immune response to tuberculosis infection. Natural killer cells and neutrophils are part of the innate immune system, which is not very effective against intracellular bacteria like Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Caseous necrosis is a type of tissue death that results from the liquefaction of the granuloma. It is a sign of progressive disease, not primary infection.
Choice D reason: The inflammatory response of cytokines activates the complement system and causes permanent lung tissue damage is not a correct explanation for the primary immune response to tuberculosis infection. The inflammatory response of cytokines and the complement system are part of the innate immune system, which is not very effective against intracellular bacteria like Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Permanent lung tissue damage is a complication of chronic or reactivated tuberculosis, not primary infection.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: A sacculated aneurysm in the circle of Willis is not the most likely cause of a left-sided embolic stroke. A sacculated aneurysm is a bulging of a weak spot in the wall of an artery, which may occur in the circle of Willis, a network of arteries at the base of the brain. A sacculated aneurysm may cause a hemorrhagic stroke, which is a bleeding into the brain, not an embolic stroke, which is a blockage of a blood vessel by a clot.
Choice B reason: Rupture of small cerebral blood vessels is not the most likely cause of a left-sided embolic stroke. Rupture of small cerebral blood vessels may occur due to hypertension, diabetes, or aging, which may damage the integrity of the blood vessel walls. Rupture of small cerebral blood vessels may cause a hemorrhagic stroke, which is a bleeding into the brain, not an embolic stroke, which is a blockage of a blood vessel by a clot.
Choice C reason: Diffuse inflammation of the small diameter blood vessels is not the most likely cause of a left-sided embolic stroke. Diffuse inflammation of the small diameter blood vessels may occur due to vasculitis, which is an autoimmune disorder that causes inflammation and narrowing of the blood vessels. Diffuse inflammation of the small diameter blood vessels may cause a thrombotic stroke, which is a formation of a clot within the blood vessel, not an embolic stroke, which is a blockage of a blood vessel by a clot that travels from another site.
Choice D reason: Migration of a clot from the left atrium of the heart is the best explanation for the most likely cause of a left-sided embolic stroke. An embolic stroke is a type of ischemic stroke, which is a lack of blood flow to the brain due to a blockage of a blood vessel by a clot. A clot may form in the left atrium of the heart due to conditions such as atrial fibrillation, which is an irregular heartbeat that causes blood to pool and clot in the heart. A clot may then break off and travel through the bloodstream until it reaches a smaller blood vessel in the brain, where it causes an embolic stroke.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A:
Thrombosis of the small blood vessels in the substantia nigra is the best explanation for the clinical manifestations observed in the patient. The substantia nigra is an area in the brain responsible for producing dopamine, a neurotransmitter involved in motor control. Thrombosis, or the formation of blood clots, in the small blood vessels of the substantia nigra can lead to a decrease in dopamine production, resulting in the symptoms of Parkinson's disease.
Choice B:
Increased acetylcholine levels and cholinergic activity in the brain are not the primary factors causing the manifestations of Parkinson's disease. In fact, Parkinson's disease is characterized by a decrease in dopamine levels, not an increase in acetylcholine.
Choice C:
Cell-mediated immune response and muscle fiber damage are not the main mechanisms underlying the clinical manifestations of Parkinson's disease. While inflammation and immune responses may play a role in the progression of the disease, they are not the primary cause of the symptoms observed.
Choice D:
Increased production of dopamine in the motor cortex is not the cause of the symptoms in Parkinson's disease. In fact, patients with Parkinson's disease experience a decrease in dopamine production due to the degeneration of dopamine-producing neurons in the substantia nigra.
Overall, the most plausible explanation for the patient's clinical manifestations is thrombosis of the small blood vessels in the substantia nigra, leading to a decrease in dopamine production.
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