The nurse, caring for a client diagnosed with testicular cancer, should anticipate a medical prescription for which of the following tumor marker studies? A/An:
cancer antigen 125 (CA-125) and serum ceruloplasmin.
human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) and alpha-fetoprotein (AFP).
serum erythropoietin (EPO) and carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA).
prostate specific antigen (PSA) and human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).
The Correct Answer is B
A. CA-125 is primarily associated with ovarian cancer and is not a relevant tumor marker for testicular cancer. Serum ceruloplasmin is a copper-carrying protein that can be elevated in various conditions, but it is not specific for testicular cancer. Therefore, this option is not appropriate.
B. Both hCG and AFP are tumor markers specifically associated with testicular cancer. Elevated levels of these markers can indicate the presence of non-seminomatous testicular tumors. Monitoring these markers is essential for diagnosis, assessing treatment response, and detecting recurrence.
C. EPO is involved in red blood cell production and is not a tumor marker for testicular cancer. CEA is primarily associated with colorectal cancer and some other malignancies, but it is not specific for testicular cancer.
D. PSA is a tumor marker associated with prostate cancer, not testicular cancer. While hCG is relevant for testicular cancer, the inclusion of PSA makes this option inappropriate for a client with testicular cancer.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. While applying heat may help alleviate discomfort, it is not the primary recommendation for managing epididymitis. The treatment often involves rest, elevation of the scrotum, and possibly cold packs rather than heat. Therefore, while this statement may reflect some understanding, it is not the best indicator of comprehensive knowledge about managing epididymitis.
B. While some mild cases may improve spontaneously, most cases of epididymitis require treatment, especially if they are caused by infections, which are common. Untreated epididymitis can lead to complications, so this statement does not reflect an accurate understanding of the condition.
C. If epididymitis is caused by a sexually transmitted infection (STI), it is important that sexual partners be evaluated and treated as well to prevent reinfection. This indicates a proper understanding of the implications of the condition, particularly in the context of STIs.
D. It seems to reference concerns related to radiation therapy, which is unrelated to the management or understanding of epididymitis. This indicates a lack of focus on the current diagnosis and its implications.
Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"C"},"B":{"answers":"A"},"C":{"answers":"B"},"D":{"answers":"A"}}
Explanation
Allogeneic Transplant
Matched Donor: This refers to a donor who is not genetically identical to the recipient but has a similar tissue type. This can include unrelated donors who are matched through registries.
Sibling Donor: A sibling can be a potential donor if they have a matching tissue type. Since siblings share genes, there is a higher chance of finding a match.
Autologous Transplant
Self-Donor: In this type of transplant, the patient donates their own stem cells before undergoing treatment (such as chemotherapy or radiation). These cells are then stored and re-infused after treatment to help the body recover.
Syngeneic Transplant
Twin Donor: This involves a donor who is an identical twin. Since identical twins have the same genetic makeup, there is a perfect match, reducing the risk of graft-versus-host disease (GVHD).
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