The nurse, caring for a client diagnosed with testicular cancer, should anticipate a medical prescription for which of the following tumor marker studies? A/An:
cancer antigen 125 (CA-125) and serum ceruloplasmin.
human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) and alpha-fetoprotein (AFP).
serum erythropoietin (EPO) and carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA).
prostate specific antigen (PSA) and human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).
The Correct Answer is B
A. CA-125 is primarily associated with ovarian cancer and is not a relevant tumor marker for testicular cancer. Serum ceruloplasmin is a copper-carrying protein that can be elevated in various conditions, but it is not specific for testicular cancer. Therefore, this option is not appropriate.
B. Both hCG and AFP are tumor markers specifically associated with testicular cancer. Elevated levels of these markers can indicate the presence of non-seminomatous testicular tumors. Monitoring these markers is essential for diagnosis, assessing treatment response, and detecting recurrence.
C. EPO is involved in red blood cell production and is not a tumor marker for testicular cancer. CEA is primarily associated with colorectal cancer and some other malignancies, but it is not specific for testicular cancer.
D. PSA is a tumor marker associated with prostate cancer, not testicular cancer. While hCG is relevant for testicular cancer, the inclusion of PSA makes this option inappropriate for a client with testicular cancer.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. This option is primarily aimed at promoting lung expansion and preventing atelectasis (collapse of the lung). While it's an important post-operative intervention, it does not directly reduce the risk of embolic events related to venous thromboembolism.
B. Reporting significant pain (8/10) may indicate complications such as infection or improper healing, but it does not directly relate to reducing the risk of embolic events. While managing pain is important for recovery, simply reporting it does not contribute to preventing VTEs.
C. Assessing popliteal pulses is part of a thorough circulatory assessment, but it mainly focuses on blood flow to the lower extremities rather than preventing embolic events. It can help identify existing DVT but does not actively reduce the risk of embolism.
D. This statement is true and is the best choice for decreasing the risk of an embolic event. Early ambulation promotes venous return, improves circulation, and significantly lowers the risk of DVT and pulmonary embolism in post-operative patients. Encouraging patients to get out of bed and move around as soon as they are stable is a key nursing intervention in post-operative care.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. While having multiple sexual partners is associated with an increased risk of sexually transmitted infections (STIs), it is not considered a significant risk factor for uterine cancer specifically. STIs can contribute to other reproductive cancers, such as cervical cancer, but they are not directly linked to the development of uterine cancer.
B. Smoking is a risk factor for various cancers, including cervical and lung cancers, but its association with uterine cancer is not as strong. While some studies suggest a potential link, it is not recognized as a primary risk factor for uterine cancer.
C. Prolonged exposure to unopposed estrogen (estrogen not balanced by progesterone) is the primary risk factor for uterine cancer. This can occur in situations such as obesity (where adipose tissue produces estrogen), hormone replacement therapy without progesterone, and certain medical conditions like polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS).
D. Having multiple pregnancies is generally considered to have a protective effect against uterine cancer. Pregnancy reduces the number of menstrual cycles a woman has over her lifetime, which can lead to lower lifetime exposure to estrogen.
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