The nurse continues to care for the client who is at 30 weeks of gestation.

Exhibits

Complete the following sentence by using the lists of options.

The client is at highest risk for developing
dropdown
as evidenced by the client's
dropdown
.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"C","dropdown-group-2":"A"}

Rationale for Correct Options:

Preeclampsia is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy that typically occurs after 20 weeks of gestation. This client has elevated blood pressure (156/96 mm Hg), proteinuria (25 mg/dL), hyperreflexia, headache, right upper quadrant pain, and facial edema—all hallmark signs of preeclampsia.
Urinalysis shows elevated protein, which is a diagnostic criterion for preeclampsia. Proteinuria is a result of kidney involvement due to endothelial damage from hypertension indicating kidney involvement due to the systemic vascular changes in preeclampsia.

Rationale for Incorrect Options:

Chorioamnionitis typically presents with maternal fever, uterine tenderness, foul-smelling amniotic fluid, and fetal tachycardia. This client is afebrile and has no signs of intrauterine infection.
Preterm labor is indicated by cervical changes and regular uterine contractions, neither of which are present. The fetal monitor shows no contractions, and there are no reports of vaginal drainage or pressure.
Serum WBC count is mildly elevated at 12,500/mm³, which can be normal in pregnancy and does not indicate infection or inflammation in this context.
Fundal assessment: The fundal height of 29 cm at 30 weeks is within the normal range (+/- 2 cm), so it does not evidence a particular risk.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Atrial fibrillation: Atrial fibrillation is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm and the absence of identifiable P waves. It does not present with a consistent PR interval, making this an incorrect match for the findings.
B. First-degree atrioventricular block: This rhythm is defined by a consistently prolonged PR interval greater than 0.20 seconds with every P wave followed by a QRS complex. A PR interval of 0.35 seconds fits this definition, making this the correct answer.
C. Complete heart block: In third-degree or complete heart block, there is no relationship between P waves and QRS complexes—the atria and ventricles beat independently. The PR interval varies and is not constant.
D. Premature atrial complexes: These are early beats originating from the atria, often with a shortened or normal PR interval and an abnormal P wave. A consistently prolonged PR interval is not characteristic of PACs.

A. Review the child's electronic pain diary. B. Request a change in medication from the provider, C. Set up an appointment with the school nurse. D. Refer the family to a chronic pain support group.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Review the child's electronic pain diary: This should be the first action as it provides valuable information about the frequency, triggers, duration, and severity of the headaches. It helps the nurse and provider make informed decisions about treatment and next steps.
B. Request a change in medication from the provider: Medication changes should be based on a thorough assessment of the child’s headache pattern and response to current therapy, which starts with reviewing documented data.
C. Set up an appointment with the school nurse: While coordination with the school is important for managing chronic conditions, it is not the priority action before understanding the nature and pattern of the headaches.
D. Refer the family to a chronic pain support group: Support groups are helpful in long-term management, but should follow a thorough assessment and diagnosis of the child’s condition and needs.

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The nurse continues to care for the client who is at 30 weeks of gestation. Exhibits Complete the following sentence by using the lists of options. The client is at highest risk for developing dropdownas evidenced by the client'sdropdown.

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is reviewing a client's cardiac rhythm strips and notes a constant P.R interval of 0.35 seconds. Which of the following dysrhythmias is the client displaying?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a child who reports migraine headaches for the past 4 months. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who has an abruptio placentae. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

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A nurse in an urgent care clinic is caring for an infant who presents with vomiting. diarrhea. and decreased oral intake. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

The nurse continues to care for the client who is at 30 weeks of gestation.

Exhibits

Complete the following sentence by using the lists of options.

The client is at highest risk for developing
dropdown
as evidenced by the client's
dropdown
.