The nurse in the women's health clinic has four clients who are waiting to be seen. Which client should the nurse see first?
A 19-yr-old client with menorrhagia who has been using superabsorbent tampons and has fever with weakness.
A 35-yr-old client with heavy spotting after having a progestin- containing IUD (Mirena) inserted a month ago.
A 39-yr-old client who is complaining of 4/10 pain after an abdominal hysterectomy.
A 42-yr-old client with secondary amenorrhea who says that her last menstrual cycle was 3 months ago.
The Correct Answer is A
A. A 19-year-old client with menorrhagia who has been using superabsorbent tampons and has fever with weakness: This is the correct choice. Fever and weakness in the context of menorrhagia suggest a possible infection (e.g., toxic shock syndrome) or severe blood loss, which requires immediate evaluation and intervention.
B. A 35-year-old client with heavy spotting after having a progestin-containing IUD (Mirena) inserted a month ago: Spotting after IUD insertion is common and does not suggest an immediate threat to the client’s health.
C. A 39-year-old client who is complaining of 4/10 pain after an abdominal hysterectomy: Mild pain after a hysterectomy is expected and not an emergency.
D. A 42-year-old client with secondary amenorrhea who says that her last menstrual cycle was 3 months ago: While secondary amenorrhea requires evaluation, it is not as urgent as a client with signs of possible infection or blood loss.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Assuming the client is someone else's spouse based on a name may be inappropriate and could lead to misunderstanding.
B. The chart may not necessarily contain an error, and jumping to conclusions could be unprofessional.
C. Apologizing and declaring confusion may make the client uncomfortable. It's more respectful to inquire directly.
D. Asking the client about their preferred form of address is the most respectful and professional approach.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Atrial fibrillation (AF) is more common in older adults, particularly those with underlying conditions like chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). COPD can lead to structural changes in the heart, increasing the risk of AF. The elderly are particularly vulnerable due to age-related heart changes and comorbidities such as lung disease.
B. While carotid endarterectomy is a surgical procedure that can be related to stroke prevention, it is not directly associated with a higher risk of AF compared to COPD.
C. Aspirin is used for its antiplatelet effects, not directly related to the risk of AF.
D. Post coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery increases the risk for arrhythmias, but it is less directly linked to AF than conditions like COPD in an older adult.
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