The nurse in the women's health clinic has four clients who are waiting to be seen. Which client should the nurse see first?
A 19-yr-old client with menorrhagia who has been using superabsorbent tampons and has fever with weakness.
A 35-yr-old client with heavy spotting after having a progestin- containing IUD (Mirena) inserted a month ago.
A 39-yr-old client who is complaining of 4/10 pain after an abdominal hysterectomy.
A 42-yr-old client with secondary amenorrhea who says that her last menstrual cycle was 3 months ago.
The Correct Answer is A
A. A 19-year-old client with menorrhagia who has been using superabsorbent tampons and has fever with weakness: This is the correct choice. Fever and weakness in the context of menorrhagia suggest a possible infection (e.g., toxic shock syndrome) or severe blood loss, which requires immediate evaluation and intervention.
B. A 35-year-old client with heavy spotting after having a progestin-containing IUD (Mirena) inserted a month ago: Spotting after IUD insertion is common and does not suggest an immediate threat to the client’s health.
C. A 39-year-old client who is complaining of 4/10 pain after an abdominal hysterectomy: Mild pain after a hysterectomy is expected and not an emergency.
D. A 42-year-old client with secondary amenorrhea who says that her last menstrual cycle was 3 months ago: While secondary amenorrhea requires evaluation, it is not as urgent as a client with signs of possible infection or blood loss.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Testicular torsion: While testicular torsion is an emergency and can cause pain and damage, it is not directly linked to testicular cancer risk.
B. Sexually transmitted infections: Although STIs can affect reproductive health, they are not a known significant risk factor for testicular cancer.
C. Testicular trauma: Testicular trauma may cause injury but is not a major risk factor for testicular cancer.
D. Undescended testicles: This is the correct answer. Undescended testicles, or cryptorchidism, is a well-established risk factor for testicular cancer, as it increases the likelihood of developing the condition.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Although monitoring hemodynamic parameters is important, this option does not address the immediate issue of low preload, as indicated by the low CVP and PAWP, suggesting hypovolemia.
B. Furosemide is a diuretic and would further decrease intravascular volume, which is inappropriate given the signs of hypovolemia.
C. Decreasing IV fluids would exacerbate the low preload and worsen the client's condition by reducing intravascular volume even further.
D. Administering 0.9% Normal Saline @ 150 mL/hr is the most appropriate intervention. The low CVP and PAWP indicate hypovolemia, and increasing fluid administration will help to increase the preload, thereby improving the client's hemodynamic status.
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