A six-year-old client has a fever of 102°F during a case of chicken pox. His mother asks for advice to help reduce his fever. Which medication should the nurse suggest?
Aspirin
Tramadol
Ketorolac
Acetaminophen
The Correct Answer is D
A. Aspirin: Use of salicylates in children with viral infections like varicella or influenza is strictly contraindicated due to the risk of Reye's syndrome. This rare but fatal condition involves acute encephalopathy and fatty liver infiltration. Aspirin should never be suggested for pediatric viral fever management.
B. Tramadol: This is a potent centrally acting analgesic with opioid properties that is not indicated for simple fever reduction. It carries significant risks of respiratory depression and sedation in pediatric patients. It is inappropriate for treating the symptomatic hyperpyrexia associated with chicken pox.
C. Ketorolac: This non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug is typically used for short-term management of moderate to severe pain, not routine fever. It has a high risk of gastrointestinal and renal side effects in children. It is not the primary agent for managing pediatric febrile episodes.
D. Acetaminophen: This is the safest and most appropriate antipyretic for treating fever in children with viral illnesses. It effectively reduces temperature by acting on the hypothalamic heat-regulating center. It does not carry the risk of Reye's syndrome associated with aspirin use in this population.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Hematocrit 46 %: This value falls within the normal physiological range for both adult males and females. Acetaminophen does not typically affect red blood cell volume or hemoglobin concentration. This lab result indicates normal oxygen-carrying capacity and hydration status rather than drug-induced toxicity or pathology.
B. Hemoglobin 14.6 g/dL: This result is well within the standard reference range and indicates no evidence of anemia or polycythemia. Chronic acetaminophen use is not associated with hematological suppression or gastrointestinal bleeding that would lower hemoglobin levels. It reflects a stable hematological profile for the client.
C. Elevated liver enzymes: Acetaminophen is primarily metabolized in the liver, where a small portion is converted into the toxic metabolite NAPQI. Chronic use or high doses can deplete glutathione stores, leading to hepatocyte necrosis. Elevated ALT and AST levels are the primary indicators of this drug-induced hepatic injury.
D. Elevated BUN and creatinine: These markers indicate renal function and are more typically associated with the use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs like ibuprofen. While massive acetaminophen overdose can cause secondary renal failure, chronic therapeutic use specifically targets the liver. Hepatic enzymes are the specific monitoring priority.
Correct Answer is ["10"]
Explanation
Prescription: ciprofloxacin 375 mg IV
Available: 37.5 mg per mL
375mg /37.5mg×1ml=10ml
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