The nurse knows that scopolamine is usually prescribed to treat?
Migraine headaches associated with anxiety and stress
Viral infections associated with respiratory illness.
Nausea and vomiting associated with motion sickness
Constipation associated with irritable bowel syndrome.
The Correct Answer is C
A. Migraine headaches associated with anxiety and stress.: Scopolamine is not indicated for migraines or anxiety-related headaches. Medications such as triptans, beta-blockers, or NSAIDs are more appropriate for migraine management rather than anticholinergic agents.
B. Viral infections associated with respiratory illness.: Scopolamine has no antiviral properties and does not treat respiratory infections. Its anticholinergic effects could thicken respiratory secretions, potentially worsening congestion or airway clearance.
C. Nausea and vomiting associated with motion sickness.: Scopolamine is an anticholinergic agent that blocks acetylcholine in the vestibular system, reducing nausea, vomiting, and dizziness caused by motion sickness. It is typically administered as a transdermal patch applied behind the ear several hours before travel.
D. Constipation associated with irritable bowel syndrome.: Scopolamine may actually worsen constipation because of its anticholinergic properties that slow gastrointestinal motility. It is contraindicated in clients with bowel obstruction or chronic constipation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Antibiotic therapy reduces normal vaginal bacterial flora, resulting in a superinfection.: Broad-spectrum antibiotics destroy beneficial bacteria such as Lactobacillus that help maintain the acidic environment of the vagina. This disruption allows Candida albicans, a fungus normally present in small amounts, to overgrow and cause vaginal candidiasis.
B. The infection spreading from the patient's lungs to the new site of infection.: Upper respiratory infections are typically viral or bacterial and do not spread to the vagina. Vaginal candidiasis results from local fungal overgrowth, not from systemic infection migration.
C. Unprotected sex during antibiotic treatment.: Vaginal yeast infections are not sexually transmitted infections. Although sexual activity can sometimes worsen irritation, the underlying cause here is the alteration of normal vaginal flora due to antibiotic use.
D. An allergic reaction to the antibiotics.: Allergic reactions to antibiotics usually present as rash, itching, or anaphylaxis rather than fungal overgrowth. The vaginal symptoms in this case are due to an imbalance in normal microorganisms, not a hypersensitivity reaction.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. This drug will prevent the client from getting a bacterial infection while in the ICU.: Famotidine does not have antibacterial properties and is not used to prevent infections. Its therapeutic effect is limited to reducing stomach acid secretion.
B. This drug will help control the client’s pain and reduce the amount of opioids needed.: Famotidine does not possess analgesic properties. Pain management in ICU clients typically involves opioids or non-opioid analgesics.
C. This drug will help the client to breathe easier while on the ventilator.: Famotidine does not act on the respiratory system or improve oxygenation. It is prescribed to reduce the risk of gastric irritation or aspiration, but it does not affect ventilatory mechanics or gas exchange.
D. This drug will decrease gastric acid production and reduce the chance for stress ulcers.: Famotidine is an H2 receptor antagonist that suppresses gastric acid secretion. In critically ill clients, it helps prevent stress-related mucosal damage and gastrointestinal bleeding caused by physiological stress and mechanical ventilation.
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